Why Couldn't the Universe Exist Without a Cause?

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No. After all, we’ve already stipulated that it had certain properties by the time we get to #2.
Maybe I misunderstood your third postulate, where you say that there is no causation in your hypothetical world. Think on whatever property you like for a physical entity. You will always observe that causation is involved: this liquid has such or such heat capacity at a given temperature, this involves causality; that substance is characterized by such or such viscosity at a given temperature and pressure, causality is involved; and so on. But if there is no causation in your world, then there are no properties; and therefore no physics is possible.
Meta-physics, when done correctly, is reasoning about physics as a whole. You can certainly provide your own definition of metaphysics if you like, but in my mind, meta-physics always follows physics. If there is any contradiction between physics and metaphysics, we can treat the metaphysical position as a suggestion, but it is ultimately up to physics to sort things out.
Might be! I would like to know one of your metaphysical conclusions and how you derived it from your pure physics (not “contaminated” with metaphysical assumptions).
 
If Hume was right the infant will learn by custom, that is to say, when it gets hurt several times in contact with the flames, until the repeated experience causes a behavioral pattern in him. But if he apprehends the structure of the interaction and establishes the causal relation between the flame and the pain, then he will learn the first time he experiences the pain. No need for a logical deduction, nor repeated experiences that could destroy his body before causing a behavioral pattern in him.
Being burned once is probably sufficient stimulus, but even if it does take several occasions, I think few would agree with your proposal that animals learn by a sophisticated process of consciously apprehending the structure of an interaction and establishing causal relationships. Surely it’s far more simple. When a flame is seen, the memory of a previous flame is recalled, and that memory is associated with a memory of pain, and so the flame is avoided. Straightforward learned response.
I partially agree with what you say in your second paragraph. What I don’t accept is your statement that causality itself is also subject to the scientific method. That seems even absurd to me. Causality precedes and is a base for the scientific method, not a result of its application. Certainly, the knowledge of each interaction is practically by definition an a posteriori knowledge, but the apprehension of the interaction’s structure can be immediate. If Humeans see the tide rising every time a beautiful woman sings, the repeated experience will cause in them the belief that the singing causes the tide to rise; but normal intelligent people will look for the cause somewhere else from the beginning, no matter how many times they have seen the woman singing while the tide is rising. Probably they too will make mistakes, but the important thing is that they will look for a cause, and some of them even might use the scientific method in their search. Strict Humeans will not produce any science, because they will think that what they have observed till now, might change the next moment; but normal intelligent people will tend to think that given a similar structure in an interaction, the results will be similar in all possible worlds (if by chance they happen to think on all possible worlds during their quotidian life). All scientific knowledge is provisional not because perhaps there is no causality in the world, but because of the idealizations we need to develop in order to represent the interactions in which we are involved (directly or indirectly) and because from time to time we are involved in novel interactions.
If your experience has always been that when A occurs, B always follows, then your intuition will be that A causes B. There is no magical means by which someone who has not read Hume will somehow know a priori whether the intuition is false. Humean or not, it’s necessary to test the intuition by observation - are there instances of A not followed by B, or instances of B which do not follow A.

Hume, I think, gives the example of Adam and a billiard table. Adam observes two balls on the table. One ball is moving toward the other. Adam has just been created. He has never seen a billiard ball, never seen any kind of ball, no experience of hard or soft, of anything rolling along a surface. In fact, no experience of anything at all, as he was only created moments before. Can Adam, by a priori logic alone, determine what will happen next? Will he think that one ball will move aside to let the other through? Or that it will jump in the air with surprise? Or the two balls will merge into one? Or explode? Or that one will move ghost-like through the other? If you think Adam could make the correct prediction then please provide the a priori logic he would use, otherwise I think you have to admit that our notions of causality must necessarily follow observation.
 
Hume, I think, gives the example of Adam and a billiard table. Adam observes two balls on the table. One ball is moving toward the other. Adam has just been created. He has never seen a billiard ball, never seen any kind of ball, no experience of hard or soft, of anything rolling along a surface. In fact, no experience of anything at all, as he was only created moments before. Can Adam, by a priori logic alone, determine what will happen next? Will he think that one ball will move aside to let the other through? Or that it will jump in the air with surprise? Or the two balls will merge into one? Or explode? Or that one will move ghost-like through the other? If you think Adam could make the correct prediction then please provide the a priori logic he would use, otherwise I think you have to admit that our notions of causality must necessarily follow observation.
A great way to put it. Even Aquinas said: “Nihil est in intellectu quod non sit prius in sensu”. Everything starts with observation.
 
We’ve had this tired old conversation many times before, I can’t get interested in repeating it yet again, thanks all the same.
And it’s a good one for which there is no response except: because I give my tacit submission to the authority of the Catholic Church.

And, to segue nicely to the OP, it’s appropriate to note that each and every time a Believer brings up the question: why is there something rather than nothing (the TRUMP CARD of the Believer) and has anything, ever, begun to exist without a cause, when an atheist responds, “Oh, it’s just this same old question again”…we know that the point has been made by Believers…and unable to be refuted.
Incidentally, I just happened to come across this trenchant thought.

That which can weather scrutiny eclipses that which must evade scrutiny.

If it hurts to scrutinize your view on how you know that the NT is theopneustos, then it’s quite clear that you are avoiding the answer. The ONLY answer: because you give your tacit submission to the authority of the CC.

And this applies to the question of the Universe’s origins.

Saying, “I dunno. Maybe it always existed” is simply being recusant to scrutiny.

And when one’s views cannot withstand scrutiny, well…🤷
 
If Humeans see the tide rising every time a beautiful woman sings, the repeated experience will cause in them the belief that the singing causes the tide to rise; but normal intelligent people will look for the cause somewhere else from the beginning, no matter how many times they have seen the woman singing while the tide is rising. Probably they too will make mistakes, but the important thing is that they will look for a cause, and some of them even might use the scientific method in their search. Strict Humeans will not produce any science, because they will think that what they have observed till now, might change the next moment; but normal intelligent people will tend to think that given a similar structure in an interaction, the results will be similar in all possible worlds (if by chance they happen to think on all possible worlds during their quotidian life). All scientific knowledge is provisional not because perhaps there is no causality in the world, but because of the idealizations we need to develop in order to represent the interactions in which we are involved (directly or indirectly) and because from time to time we are involved in novel interactions.
I suspect this marks the demarcation line between rational beings and sentient beings. Rational beings – the kind that humans purportedly are – are not merely interested in being “conditioned” to respond by the consistency of the causal interactions in the physical world, but are concerned with the explanations behind those interactions – the reasons why things happen as they do.

What inocente seems to be arguing is that comprehending the underlying principles behind change and why things are the way they are, generally speaking, is not important to rational beings. Rather – it seems to be his inference – rational beings are merely concerned with being properly conditioned.

While I have no doubt that some, if not many, human beings are merely concerned to respond to stimuli appropriately and have no inclination to understand why things occur the way they do. This means the intellectual endeavor of discerning explanations for why things are the way they are is not of interest to these individuals. Again, though that indicates they have risen only to the level of sentience and not – yet, anyway – to the level of rationality since they view intellection purely as conditioning and not related in any way to uncovering the actual workings of reality in terms of explanatory causality.

This is why it is frustrating discussing such issues with sentient – as opposed to intelligent – beings: the capacity to grasp the points being made seems beyond them. Now, I wouldn’t go so far as to suppose they are incapable of comprehending to the level required, but they certainly show a reticence to use key powers of the mind in a consistent way, opting to fall back onto the force of what is presented to the senses and imagination rather than trust their own ability to think and reason.
 
Maybe I misunderstood your third postulate, where you say that there is no causation in your hypothetical world. Think on whatever property you like for a physical entity. You will always observe that causation is involved: this liquid has such or such heat capacity at a given temperature, this involves causality; that substance is characterized by such or such viscosity at a given temperature and pressure, causality is involved; and so on. But if there is no causation in your world, then there are no properties; and therefore no physics is possible.
Only if you think of properties as prescriptive rather than descriptive.
 
Incidentally, I just happened to come across this trenchant thought.

That which can weather scrutiny eclipses that which must evade scrutiny.

If it hurts to scrutinize your view on how you know that the NT is theopneustos, then it’s quite clear that you are avoiding the answer. The ONLY answer: because you give your tacit submission to the authority of the CC.

And this applies to the question of the Universe’s origins.

Saying, “I dunno. Maybe it always existed” is simply being recusant to scrutiny.

And when one’s views cannot withstand scrutiny, well…🤷
The mod warned us all to stay on-topic and this is the second time within 24 hours that you’ve transparently tried to circumvent his warning. You stalk me from thread to thread with this theop- nonsense, and I’ve told you before I’m not interested in you or in you dominating me into submission. If this was real life I’d get a restraining order against you.

I joined this thread to discuss the OP. Do you have a point to make which is on-topic?
 
What inocente seems to be arguing is that comprehending the underlying principles behind change and why things are the way they are, generally speaking, is not important to rational beings. Rather – it seems to be his inference – rational beings are merely concerned with being properly conditioned.
No, you know well that’s not my argument. You appear to have fabricated that to facilitate your following personal attack, which you didn’t even have the courage to post to me. This, mind, after you suddenly gave up your end of the discussion you and I were having. Three posts you didn’t respond to. Perhaps you weren’t really in difficulties, perhaps you hadn’t really run out of arguments, perhaps you just forgot. Although three times does seem a bit, well, forgetful.

Now Juan and I are having a civilized discussion about Hume and causation. I’m very interested in the conversation and in getting my head round Hume’s thinking. Rather than making underhand insults in a halfhearted attempt to score twitter points, do you have a rational argument, something enlightening to contribute to our discussion?
 
Back to square 1.

If the universe could exist without a cause, prove it is eternal.

That cannot be proven. All the signs point otherwise.

14 billions of years and STILL BANGING AWAY.
 
The mod warned us all to stay on-topic and this is the second time within 24 hours that you’ve transparently tried to circumvent his warning. You stalk me from thread to thread with this theop- nonsense, and I’ve told you before I’m not interested in you or in you dominating me into submission. If this was real life I’d get a restraining order against you.

I joined this thread to discuss the OP. Do you have a point to make which is on-topic?
Again, bristling when your position is questioned–whether it is how could the universe exist without a cause, or how it is you know that Hebrews is theopneustos–because you understand your position cannot withstand scrutiny, is telling.

And I do love me these 2 questions. 🙂

There is no other answer but the Catholic answer.

And it makes me ever-so-happy to pointedly ask them.

You have no answer except the Catholic answer.

When one is recusant to scrutiny, one must question why this is so.

One must ask himself: why is the question so bothersome to me?

:hmmm:

Why do atheists take umbrage at being asked how could the universe exist without a cause?

The universe has not ALWAYS existed–science and philosophy tells us this.

Thus, whatever has a beginning needs a cause. Philosophy tells us this.

QED
 
No, you know well that’s not my argument. You appear to have fabricated that to facilitate your following personal attack, which you didn’t even have the courage to post to me. This, mind, after you suddenly gave up your end of the discussion you and I were having. Three posts you didn’t respond to. Perhaps you weren’t really in difficulties, perhaps you hadn’t really run out of arguments, perhaps you just forgot. Although three times does seem a bit, well, forgetful.

Now Juan and I are having a civilized discussion about Hume and causation. I’m very interested in the conversation and in getting my head round Hume’s thinking. Rather than making underhand insults in a halfhearted attempt to score twitter points, do you have a rational argument, something enlightening to contribute to our discussion?
I thought I was adding “something enlightening” to the discussion.

The problem is that you are turning my contribution into a personal attack it was never meant to be.

I was attempting to explain that relying on sentience rather than intelligence leads to the mistaken belief that comprehending the reasons behind events in the world only follows from experience when, in fact, it is more about the rational activity of making sense of experiences using the intellect.

One of the inherent differences between sentience and intelligence, I would propose, is that sentience merely reacts to what it expects to occur as a result of being conditioned to expect certain eventualities, whereas the intellect seeks to comprehend underlying explanations or “reasons” for things which may not be obvious from mere observation, no matter how consistently the expected events may be experienced.

This is where meaning, significance and explanation come into play. If it was merely a matter of expecting events because those events consistently follow from certain prior causes, there would be no need to make sense of the world around us, merely the requirement to respond appropriately. That, however, is NOT what science, properly understood tries to do, now is it?

I noticed that your response to Juan’s post #737 was wholly inadequate as far as his point was concerned.
Hume, I think, gives the example of Adam and a billiard table. Adam observes two balls on the table. One ball is moving toward the other. Adam has just been created. He has never seen a billiard ball, never seen any kind of ball, no experience of hard or soft, of anything rolling along a surface. In fact, no experience of anything at all, as he was only created moments before. Can Adam, by a priori logic alone, determine what will happen next? Will he think that one ball will move aside to let the other through? Or that it will jump in the air with surprise? Or the two balls will merge into one? Or explode? Or that one will move ghost-like through the other? If you think Adam could make the correct prediction then please provide the a priori logic he would use, otherwise I think you have to admit that our notions of causality must necessarily follow observation.
What you call “observation” is with respect to objects in the world around us. Sure, there has to be some experience with those objects to grasp their underlying nature, but that does not imply the Adam would not be able to “by logic alone” consistently infer from what is known about those objects how they will react once he has sufficiently understood their internal structure and the rules that govern that structure. You are overstating the case if you insist upon implying that the way the world functions has nothing whatsoever to do with its inherent nature – which is precisely what science and metaphysics seek to understand completely. There is no need to resort to a conclusion that our grasp of cause and effect in the world around us is merely the result of being conditioned to see things in a particular way. That would be presumptuous, in fact.

No, rational human beings look for the underlying explanations inherent in the world around us, from which a priori conclusions and predictions can be made about the world precisely because once the underlying structure and organizing principles for the physical universe are properly understood, it is those principles which do, in fact, determine what will happen in the world around us. Those principles do not depend for their existence upon our apprehending of them. Ergo, once known Adam can, in fact, make predictions about what will happen and do so a priori.

You are confusing the genesis of Adam’s ability to predict events in the world (which arises somewhat a posteriori) with the underlying truths with which Adam is dealing, which exist a priori and independently of Adam. This means a rational being from another planet who has never seen billiard balls or a billiard table but who properly grasps the laws of physics would be able to predict with absolute accuracy what will occur when a cue ball is struck. Now that may depend upon the alien properly measuring mass, forces, angles and the like, but it is untrue to say the alien’s ability to predict hinges entirely upon his experience with billiard balls.

No, it depends entirely upon his grasp of underlying laws of physics which apply to the billiard balls independently of the experiences of the alien. Entire branches of science depend upon this basic understanding.
 
No, you know well that’s not my argument. You appear to have fabricated that to facilitate your following personal attack, which you didn’t even have the courage to post to me. This, mind, after you suddenly gave up your end of the discussion you and I were having. Three posts you didn’t respond to. Perhaps you weren’t really in difficulties, perhaps you hadn’t really run out of arguments, perhaps you just forgot. Although three times does seem a bit, well, forgetful.
You mean posts #470 and #474?

I thought you said "That’s about as much as I feel comfortable saying, given the ban,” which seemed to imply that you didn’t want to pursue the matter.

In any case, I will leave it to readers to go back the posts of mine to which you were responding and decide for themselves which of us had “run out of arguments.”
 
Why Couldn’t the Universe Exist Without a Cause?
  1. There is nothing about the nature of the Universe that makes it physically or metaphysically necessary to exist.
  2. Everything in our experience has a cause or a beginning. Time and time again our experience confirms it and nothing refutes it that things have causes.
  3. Therefore, making an induction from 1 and 2 the universe itself has a cause.
 
Therefore, making an induction from 1 and 2 the universe itself has a cause.
I would only add that it has a NECESSARY CAUSE.

Without the NECESSARY CAUSE all the possible causes inside the universe seem to be unnecessary, and therefore the universe could even be without possible causes inside the universe, which transparently is not so.

If everything inside the universe requires a cause, it seems reasonable to suppose that the universe itself has a cause. What would be reasonable about supposing the universe has no NECESSARY CAUSE? And given the mathematical ordering of nature, what would be unreasonable about assuming the cause of the universe was, among other possible things, a Supreme Mathematician?

And all the more so because science tells us the universe started 14 billions of years ago, which was figured out by some lower mathematicians who can read the mind of el matemático Supremo?
 
  1. There is nothing about the nature of the Universe that makes it physically or metaphysically necessary to exist.
Since non-existence is just a concept, which cannot exist “physically”, the existence of the universe is “physically necessary”. The expression “nothing can or could exist” is a logical, metaphysical and physical nonsense.
  1. Everything in our experience has a cause or a beginning.
How did you get access to that “everything”?
Time and time again our experience confirms it and nothing refutes it that things have causes.
Our experience is only limited to a miniscule part of the physical reality. And our free decisions cannot have external causes, because in that case they would not be “free”. You can’t have it both ways. Either we don’t have free will, or we do. In the second case our decisions are not “caused”, so your assertion is simply incorrect.
  1. Therefore, making an induction from 1 and 2 the universe itself has a cause.
Since 1) is false and 2) is unfounded, the corollary must be rejected.
 
  1. There is nothing about the nature of the Universe that makes it physically or metaphysically necessary to exist.
  2. Everything in our experience has a cause or a beginning. Time and time again our experience confirms it and nothing refutes it that things have causes.
  3. Therefore, making an induction from 1 and 2 the universe itself has a cause.
Egg-zactly right.



Although I would tweak the above and say that “nothing refutes it that things*** that begin to exist ***have causes”.

The universe began to exist.

Therefore it needs a cause.

QED.
 
  1. Everything in our experience has a cause or a beginning. Time and time again our experience confirms it and nothing (in our experience) refutes it that things have causes.
I added one more ‘in our experience’ just to emphasise what you meant. With which I have no problem whatsoever. The same is exactly true in my experience as well.

In fact, I would say that it’s true in everyone else’s experience as well.

Now could you please confirm what the situation is in areas where we have no direct experience. Maybe in areas of Quantum physics where things appear to happen without a cause.

And then maybe confirm what the situation is in areas where the very physical laws that govern our existence do not actually apply. I’d suggest that you and everyone else has zero experience of those situations so 'everything in our experience doesn’t really apply, does it…
 
Maybe in areas of Quantum physics where things appear to happen without a cause.
And maybe in areas of the Numinous we don’t have to explain why God permits suffering.
And we don’t have to explain why God doesn’t heal amputees.
And we don’t have to give proof that Jesus rose from the dead.

After all, maybe when we deal with the supernatural, the rules are different.
 
Being burned once is probably sufficient stimulus, but even if it does take several occasions, I think few would agree with your proposal that animals learn by a sophisticated process of consciously apprehending the structure of an interaction and establishing causal relationships. Surely it’s far more simple. When a flame is seen, the memory of a previous flame is recalled, and that memory is associated with a memory of pain, and so the flame is avoided. Straightforward learned response.
Though I tend to think that animals are able to establish some relations because they too apprehend structures, at this moment I don’t have sufficient information to support my belief. Some time ago I was studying some of the works by Frederik Buytendijk, and also some of the Gestalt theorists, but I had to discontinue my studies. Besides, what happen with animals doesn’t seem relevant to me for this discussion. That is why I didn’t mention animals in my response.

Nevertheless, even for us humans, I don’t see our apprehension of structures as a complex activity. It is certainly the driving force for us to become sophisticated, but our conscience does not appear to ourselves as a complicated attribute.

Now, in the chain that you are mentioning: “flame, observation, pain remembrance, flame avoidance”, do you think these phenomena just happen with certain regularity, but without any true causal relationship between them, or perhaps you see there is a causal relationship between them. You have used the word “stimulus” in your answer, which makes me think that causality is real to you, but who knows. Do you think that the vision of the flame is, at least partially, the cause of the pain remembrance in a subject who suffered a burning in the past or you think there is no real connection between the phenomena in the chain?
 
If your experience has always been that when A occurs, B always follows, then your intuition will be that A causes B. There is no magical means by which someone who has not read Hume will somehow know a priori whether the intuition is false. Humean or not, it’s necessary to test the intuition by observation - are there instances of A not followed by B, or instances of B which do not follow A.

Hume, I think, gives the example of Adam and a billiard table. Adam observes two balls on the table. One ball is moving toward the other. Adam has just been created. He has never seen a billiard ball, never seen any kind of ball, no experience of hard or soft, of anything rolling along a surface. In fact, no experience of anything at all, as he was only created moments before. Can Adam, by a priori logic alone, determine what will happen next? Will he think that one ball will move aside to let the other through? Or that it will jump in the air with surprise? Or the two balls will merge into one? Or explode? Or that one will move ghost-like through the other? If you think Adam could make the correct prediction then please provide the a priori logic he would use, otherwise I think you have to admit that our notions of causality must necessarily follow observation.
Try to define what you understand by “intuition”. The effort could be helpful to you.

This distinction between “a priori” and “a posteriori” responds to a very schematic idealization of knowledge; but knowledge is richer than that. In order to establish a relation, we normally need at least two elements (the “identity” is an exception). Those elements can be the kind of objects which interact with others, and interaction is the only means we have to know them (“experience”). Other kind of elements are relations; for example, the relations which constitute mathematics, or logic. Relations do not interact between them, and do not interact with us either. They constitute a realm on their own, and the knowledge of relations or the development of new relations between other relations is very close to what Kant calls a priori judgments. But we are beings who belong to both realms: interactions and relations: We join and separate physical elements with our hands, and join and separate relational elements in our minds.

Now, causality is a relation that we establish between interacting elements. There is no causality in the realm of relations. From that standpoint you are correct when you say that the notion of causality (and not only the variety of applications of this notion, but the relation in its highest level of abstraction -I dislike this term, but tend to think that it does not cause confusion to most of the people) must necessarily follow observation (observation being one of our modes of interaction with the world). However, there is in the world an structure that is the correlate of the principle of causality, that we apprehend as intelligent corporeal living beings and that we approximate with this relation.

What can we do with relations?

When I read your example I remembered Descartes and Leibniz when they thought about the conservation of the amount of movement in the universe. Both began thinking that because God is perfect, there must be an amount of movement in the universe that must remain constant. Based on that and on some mental experiments (pure relation!) Leibniz defined momentum in the same way Newton defined it, and he realized that it was a quantity that was conserved, for example, during collisions. He was right. Descartes defined the amount of movement in a different way, and based on his definition he predicted certain behaviors of colliding bodies which experience did not confirm. Descartes was wrong. What was the difference between them? It is a question not so easy to respond.

Dmitri Mendeleev was able to predict some behaviors of substances which he never saw. Once those substances were discovered, it was confirmed that they behaved as Mendeleev predicted. How was it possible? Because there was no magic, as you say.

If you study organic chemistry you will learn the beautiful order of this discipline. In one of its approaches it is based on the description of some basic structures named functional groups. Once you know the theory, if you know some behaviors of a substance, you might be able to infer its structure and predict some other behaviors that you have never tested. Is this an a priori or a posteriori knowledge? Why do we have to reduce ourselves to this two exclusive alternatives?

The apprehension of structures is so common, that you just have to reflect on that to realize it. Even in Hume’s writings you will discover this ability to apprehend structures. But Hume got trapped into a confusion so dense which he was unable to dissipate afterwards. As I have suggested before, when he thought that “custom” was the explanation for the principle of causality, his blindness prevented him from realizing that it was causality which explained “custom”. Do you see it?
 
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