When Jesus came to be baptized, John recognized in Him a purity of character that he had never before perceived in any man. The very atmosphere of His presence was holy and awe-inspiring. Among the multitudes that had gathered about him at the Jordan, John had heard dark tales of crime, and had met souls bowed down with the burden of myriad sins; but never had he come in contact with a human being from whom there breathed an influence so divine. All this was in harmony with what had been revealed to John regarding the Messiah. Yet he shrank from granting the request of Jesus. How could he, a sinner, baptize the Sinless One? And why should He who needed no repentance submit to a rite that was a confession of guilt to be washed away?
Ask your students if they think that you know the fire escape plan for the school. When they say “yes”, ask them if they think you need to do fire drills. When they say “no”, remind them that it is nevertheless good for you to be with them and lead them in the drills that they need.
Before answering this question, it’s necessary to recognize that the baptisms that John performed were different than the baptism that Jesus instituted. John’s baptisms were merely ritual washings, meant to witness to repentance. The baptism that Jesus instituted is a sacrament – it is not just a washing, but has real spiritual effects.
He was divine before the beginning of time. However, as a man and teacher, he had John as His predecessor. Initially, John had some authority over Jesus and His reaching, as John became indignant when Jesus started to teach beyond the scope of the Baptist. At the time of the baptism of Jesus, the time was not ripe yet for the manifestation of His divinity.
I would even ask what would have been of Jesus without John? Of course, His divinity would have manifested itself. But His fully human nature depended on human circumstances. Jesus depended on John in His understanding of His human nature. He needed time to come to the gradual realization of the divine plan that was actually His own plan of salvation.
Quick questions, and some observations.
Does it wash away sins? Or, does it merely demonstrate that the baptized wishes to repent?
No. He was beheaded prior to Jesus’ institution of baptism (Mt 14 and Mt 28, respectively).
As you well know, there’s no record of it in the Bible. However, Jesus instituted the apostles into His Church as priests at the Last Supper, and breathed the Holy Spirit on them following His resurrection.
No, he speaks of Noah being saved through water, as a prefigurement of the baptism “which saves you now.”
By “passing through the sea”. Did that baptism save, in the way that Peter says that the sacrament of baptism saves? Nope. Paul admits that “God was not pleased” with them and they “were struck down in the desert.” Clearly, he’s not talking about the baptism of Jesus.
It didn’t prescribe this bath, though.
'Cause He was incapable of just saying “baptize all people”? (Oops… He did! How 'bout that!)
Oh, OK. So… He wasn’t baptized in order that He could institute baptism. Got it.
To help anyone else confused like me please take another stab at it.