Gorgias:
Does it wash away sins? Or, does it merely demonstrate that the baptized wishes to repent?
Acts 22:17.
“[Paul said,] ‘After I had returned to Jerusalem and while I was praying in the temple, I fell into a trance’”…? Umm… not sure why you’re quoting that. Nevertheless, the baptism you’re referencing there (Acts 22:16) is the sacramental baptism of Jesus’ command to the apostles, not John’s baptism.
Then go back and see Mark 1:4-5 (repentance for remission of their sins, confessing their sins); Luke 3:3;
Does the remission of sins come from John? (If so, then what need is there of Jesus?) Rather, wouldn’t you say that the washing comes from John, but the remission of sins comes from Jesus’ death and resurrection? And, since that’s the case, it means that John’s baptism
isn’t what you’re claiming it is.
John 3:3-15 (with Nicodemus;
Does Jesus offer this baptism to Nicodemus at that moment? Or, given His assertion that He must be “lifted up” (John 3:14) tell us that this baptism – and salvation – happens
after He has been lifted up?
A person who is baptized, such as when John was baptizing, does not merely “wish” to repent, but is actually of “repentance”, since they were obeying God to do so
Great. So, please tell me: did God forgive the sins of those who repented and were baptized by John? Or, did the real effects of sacramental baptism only begin when, well… sacramental baptism was actually commanded by Christ to His apostles?
If you want to claim that people were truly sorry when John dunked them, I’m cool with that. However, if you want real
effects, then those didn’t happen until Christ rose from the dead and commanded his apostles to baptize
in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit.
(by the way, is full bodily immersion in water in every single case in scripture)
Ezekiel 36:25 – “I will sprinkle clean water over you to make you clean; from all your impurities and from all your idols I will cleanse you.”
Moses took the blood of the covenant and sprinkled it on the people (Exodus 24:8).
Even
if you want to make a case for immersion, please tell me: do you
see immersion in the baptisms (for example, of Jesus or of Philip’s Ethiopian eunuch), or do you
presume it? After all, we don’t read “John immersed Jesus” or “Philip immersed the Ethiopean”! We simply see that they went down to the water and that they came up again. If you only
infer immersion, you cannot assert that it’s
required.