Why did Jesus have to have our mother Mary born of Immaculate conception

[Pathway2]

I understand why she is immaculate and that she was still a virgin and has ascended up into heaven, However what was the benefit of her life being filled with grace?

 

[Wesrock]

What was the purpose of preparing the holy of holies or the Temple before its use for a sacred purpose?

Anyway, something interesting I’ve read has to do with Mary’s assent. In fact, I am going to quote a passage from Hans Urs Von Balthasar. I apologize for its length, but I don’t think I could shorten it.

1. The Dimensions of the Marian Yes

Scholars are united in affirming that Mary’s final answer to the angel and, through him, to God, “behold, I am the handmaid of the Lord, let it be to me according to your word”, is the finally fulfilled expression of the faith of Abraham and of Israel as a whole. Abraham himself had been asked for measureless obedience of faith: on Mount Moriah he was required to return the very gift that God had given him in exchange for his faith, namely, the son of the promise. Abraham had performed the sacrifice spiritually, even if he had not had to carry it out materially. In Mary’s case, God goes to the end of this faith: on the Cross, under which she stands, no angel intervenes to save, and she must give back to God her Son, the Son of the fulfillment, in darkness of faith that she cannot comprehend or penetrate.

But Jesus’ conception itself requires an act of faith that infinitely transcends that of Abraham (and especially that of Sarah, who laughed in her unbelief). The Word of God who wills to take flesh in Mary needs a receptive Yes that is spoken with the whole person, spirit and body, with absolutely no (even unconscious) restrictions, that offers the entirety of human nature as a locus for the Incarnation. Receiving and letting in need not be passive; in relation to God, they are, when done in faith, always supreme activity. If Mary’s Yes had contained even the shadow of a demurral, of a “so far and no farther”, a stain would have clung to her faith and the child could not have taken possession of the whole of human nature. The freedom of Mary’s Yes from all hesitation comes perhaps more clearly to light where she also says Yes to her marriage with Joseph and leaves it to God to reconcile with her new task.

This quality of Mary’s Yes is wholly a function of the requirements of Christology. The same can be said of the two dogmatic propositions it entails: her virginity and her freedom fro the original sin otherwise common to all men. The latter affirmation, namely, that she “was conceived immaculate”, says nothing but what is indispensable for the boundlessness of her Yes. For anyone affected in some way by original sin would be incapable of such a guileless openness to every disposition of God. . . .

 

[Joe_5859]

I don’t know that I’d say Jesus had to have Mary be immaculately conceived to be without Original Sin. I’m sure He could have done things differently. But it is certainly very fitting. God Himself physically dwelled within her for 9 months. And God is inimically opposed to sin. Therefore, it makes sense that there would be no sin in Mary.

 

[po18guy]

Tiny correction: She, being a pure creature, was assumed into heaven. Christ ascended by His own power. Scientifically, purity does not descend from sin. The concept of entropy explains this. If you were to design your own mother, as our Lord did, would you design a sinful soul? Remember that Jesus was not only bound by the Ten Commandments, He is those Commandments in a certain sense.

Thus He, by his very divine nature, honored his mother by preserving her from original sin. If she was sinless, His own human flesh would also, of necessity, be sinless. Also, “original sin” is not a positive, or something that we did in the womb, or without knowing. It is a lack, a stain upon our soul, based on the original disobedience.

 

[MT1926]

I find it very easy to accept the teachings on Mary because as a son who Loves his mother I totally agree with the phrase.

How a man treats his mother will tell you how he will treat you.

As @po18guy stated…

Also, “original sin” is not a positive, or something that we did in the womb, or without knowing. It is a lack, a stain upon our soul, based on the original disobedience.

I believe in the Immaculate conception because I find it hard to believe Jesus will wipe away my stain of Original Sin while making His own Mother have that stain on her soul for 33 years.

Ever Virgin. Both Jesus and St. Paul tell us that celibacy for the sake of the kingdom is the perfect way to live life for God.

Assumption. We believe that we will receive our glorified bodies back at the second coming. Why would Jesus make His mother wait for something He has already told us He will do?

However what was the benefit of her life being filled with grace?

Being filled with Grace is not something we can do under our own power. Grace is a free gift from God. Why would I ever believe I am worth of receiving even 1% of the Grace Jesus has given His mother. Therefore, her being full of Grace and perfect in this life shows me that there is hope for me yet.

In the end the best answer is Jesus did these things for His Mother because it is only fitting for a Son to honor His Mother to the best of His ability.

God Bless

 

[po18guy]

Sin comes from sin. Purity from purity. “Honor thy mother and father”

What greater and more appropriate honor than to see that she takes flesh without sin so that He might also.