Why did Jesus name Simon, "the Rock"?

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The fact that Matthew 1:25 calls him the “first born” is just one small example. I could go on and on with examples.
First born in the light of what Matthew wrote means “one who opens the womb” It has nothing to do with Chronology. There have been tombs found in ancient lads with the inscription, “she died giving birth to her first born.” That is an old and tired accusation that has been refuted all to many times.

And while we are on Matthew, those who attack the RCC tradition of Christ being an only child, will cite the phrase referring to the marriage of Joseph and Mary that "he had no relations with her until she bore a son, and named him Jesus.(Matt 1:25) The word “until” and its translation is used to support that Mary and Joseph had other children. Well, if I said to you I won’t take another drink until the day I die. I guess you might assume that I’ll crack open a cold six pack six feet under.
Words have several meanings in English. I can think of dozens more. That’s why we have a church, guided by the Holy Spirit, that will consistently teach the truth, infallibly.
 
You’ve got to be kidding. really?.. do a simple word search on the term “first born” found in the new testament. See how the phrase is used in other like passages. If you still come up with that kind of mumbo jumbo then there is no biblical facts I can put in front of you that make any difference when it comes to the truth. Truth is whatever you have talked yourself into believing and not what God’s clear word says.
 
That is the most ridiculous thing I’ve ever heard. hee. hee… and I need to go deeper?.. how about "thou art petros and upon this petros I will build my Church.
You don’t know about gender in the Greek language? Matthew could have said, “thou art petros and upon this petros” if he wanted to sound like an ignoramus who didn’t have the most basic knowledge of Greek and didn’t want to be taken seriously.

Do Greek nouns have gender?
In Ancient Greek, all nouns are classified according to grammatical gender (masculine, feminine, or neuter) and are used in a number (singular, dual, or plural). According to their function in a sentence, their form changes to one of the five cases (nominative, vocative, accusative, genitive, or dative).
Ancient Greek nouns - Wikipedia


Why didn’t the holy Spirit just say that?..
You wanted the Holy Spirit to give you a lesson in Greek.
help em’ Jesus.
Please Lord, help 'em!
 
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You’ve got to be kidding. really?.. do a simple word search on the term “first born” found in the new testament. See how the phrase is used in other like passages. If you still come up with that kind of mumbo jumbo then there is no biblical facts I can put in front of you that make any difference when it comes to the truth. Truth is whatever you have talked yourself into believing and not what God’s clear word says.
In what, some protestant Bible insistent on bashing everything the RCC says. Some commentary by someone who attended the Church of What’s Happening Now bible college and is now “preaching the word” to people who only want to hear what they want to hear, and then shaking them down for his 10%. Look, initially I thought you might be interested in a dialogue but it’s clear you are interested only in rehashing the same old lies about the RCC. I ought to know better when I recognize the pentecostal script right from the Jimmy Swaggart Playbook. I think I’ll end this back and forth before I say or write something that tomorrow I’lll regret. Enjoy YOUR mumbo jumbo.

Shalom
 
I agree Jesus never said, thou art petros and upon this petros I will build… I was trying to make a point. I never claimed to be a Greek scholar but I do have access to their point of view. They argue the point to say, " upon this Rock" in the feminine gender only shows the authors intent especially in light of other passages declaring Christ the head of the Church.

It would be highly unusual to make such a statement insisting that Peter was the object instead of the enlightened statement he just uttered, “Thou Art the Christ.” seeing that Christ is our Rock.

Secondly, I have argued on this web site that even if the Greek text had such an unusual play on words, it still does not go far enough to say what the Roman catholic church has said about Peter. It is a poor example to claim Peter as the universal vicar of Christ.
 
I agree Jesus never said, thou art petros and upon this petros I will build… I was trying to make a point.
What was the point?
I never claimed to be a Greek scholar but I do have access to their point of view.
It’s obvious that you don’t.
They argue the point to say, " upon this Rock" in the feminine gender only shows the authors intent especially in light of other passages declaring Christ the head of the Church. It would be highly unusual to make such a statement insisting that Peter was the object
Lol! You still don’t get it. The only way to say rock is in the feminine gender. He had no other choice unless he wanted to sound like he was speaking Greek for the very first time.
instead of the enlightened statement he just uttered, “Thou Art the Christ.” seeing that Christ is our Rock.
You’re missing the forest for the trees. Christ is our Rock. That’s why He named Simon, Rock. To show that Simon is going to be His Vicar. To show that Simon Peter would be His representative upon this earth. To show that Simon Peter was going to have the authority of God in this world.
Secondly, I have argued on this web site that even if the Greek text had such an unusual play on words, it still does not go far enough to say what the Roman catholic church has said about Peter. It is a poor example to claim Peter as the universal vicar of Christ.
Just because you reject the truth doesn’t mean that it isn’t true.
 
Au contraire! Break out that old reliable “sole rule of faith” (PLEASE! Show me that phrase in the bible!) and read:
Mark 5:41 Taking her by the hand he said to her, “Tal′itha cu′mi”; which means, “Little girl, I say to you, arise.”

Mark 15:34 And at the ninth hour, Jesus cried out with a loud voice, saying: Eloi, Eloi, lamma sabacthani? Which is, being interpreted, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?
In each and every case of a direct quote of our Lord, it is Aramaic. The Greek and Latin are translations. Matthew was clearly written in Aramaic and later translated. To deny that is to fashion one’s own religion, to a greater or lesser degree. Do we really want to do that?

It is also good to avoid imposing a man-made template of Greek this, Greek that, and Greek everything upon our Lord! As you can see, He spoke Aramaic. Christ chose Aramaic. Live with it.

Oh, and as to the Greek, you do agree that Gabriel addressed Mary using “Kecharitomene” - Greek which means one who has been graced to the full/fully graced/full of grace. A word which appears exactly once in all of Greek writing. I would call that a special grace.
 
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