C
coolcatholicguy
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Why did they take out the part about worshipping idols and make up for that by splitting another commandment into 2?
Because wives are not property.Why did they take out the part about worshipping idols and make up for that by splitting another commandment into 2?
Nothing was taken out nor added. Just a different numbering scheme, used for whatever reason (note that scripture did not come with verse numbers.) Idol worship is most definitely considered to be bad and against the first commandment. The full first commandment, using the numbering scheme I’m familiar with is:Why did they take out the part about worshipping idols and make up for that by splitting another commandment into 2?
So it’s all still there. Arguing about numbering is kind of silly, and to be honest I’ve only ran into it from people who were raised thinking Catholics worshiped everything from Mary to the Pope to their favorite cat. There are real meaningful differences between what Catholics believe and what protestants tend to believe. But this numbering issue isn’t one of em.“I am the Lord your God, who brought you out of the land of Egypt, out of the house of slavery; you shall have no other gods before me. You shall not make for yourself an idol, whether in the form of anything that is in heaven above, or that is on the earth beneath, or that is in the water under the earth. You shall not bow down to them or worship them; for I the LORD your God am a jealous God, punishing children for the iniquity of parents, to the third and fourth generation of those who reject me, but showing steadfast love to the thousandth generation of those who love me and keep my commandments.”
the Catholic Church never made any changes. The first commandment encompasses all those verses following, up to what the Church traditional has numbered as the 2nd (taking the Lord’s name in vain).Why did they take out the part about worshipping idols and make up for that by splitting another commandment into 2?
Moses, who must have been Catholic, is the one who switched the phrases around: compare Exodus 20 with Deuteronomy 5.…which the Catholic Church has traditionally separated into two (thereby giving wives a greater dignity than cattle, oxen and other chattel).
Moses was a Jew.Moses, who must have been Catholic, is the one who switched the phrases around: compare Exodus 20 with Deuteronomy 5.
Nuh-uh. I know the Reformation caused a lot of chaos, but let’s give the Reformers a break here. To sum:the Catholic Church never made any changes. The first commandment encompasses all those verses following, up to what the Church traditional has numbered as the 2nd (taking the Lord’s name in vain).
recall there were no verse numbers until very late in the history of bible transcription.
some of the Reformers chose to re-number the verses and the decalogue, separating the first commandment into two, and combining the two commandments on coveting, which the Catholic Church has traditionally separated into two (thereby giving wives a greater dignity than cattle, oxen and other chattel).
so the Catholic Church changed nothing, the Reformers made the change.
Here is how the Ten Words would look like if we separate them by the imperatives:There are, if I recall correctly, 22 “imperative” verbs in the Exodus version of the Commandments.
Actually, Moses was an Israelite, more specifically a Levite (i.e. a member of the tribe of Levi) due to his parentage.Moses was a Jew.
You’re right.Actually, Moses was an Israelite, more specifically a Levite (i.e. a member of the tribe of Levi) due to his parentage.Strictly speaking, the word Jew originally referred to a member of the tribe of Judah or the people of the kingdom of Judah. It was only later, with the destruction of the northern kingdom of Israel, that the term came to be applied to say, the surviving Israelites in general and their descendants as well as converts to native Israelite religion (and much later, the inhabitants of Yehud Medinata/the Kingdom of Iudaea/the Tetrarchy of Iudaea/Iudaea Province). So in a sense, using the term ‘Jew’ for Moses is somewhat anachronistic.
No bad intentions, but you’re a Catholic, correct? So you’re a part of the Catholic Church, referring to it as they, not we, and you are using a Protestant argument. But maybe they are influencing you too much or something.Why did they take out the part about worshipping idols and make up for that by splitting another commandment into 2?
Boom! Excellent point. (GASP!!) Does this mean Protestants consider them property? No, but it does mean that protestants bent over backwards to number the commandments differently to distance themselves from those darned papists!Because wives are not property.
Not every Protestant, mind you. Lutherans use the Augustinian way of dividing the Commandments that Catholics use AFAIK, but I think they’re unique in this.Boom! Excellent point. (GASP!!) Does this mean Protestants consider them property? No, but it does mean that protestants bent over backwards to number the commandments differently to distance themselves from those darned papists!
***My dear friend in Christ,=coolcatholicguy;8077421]Why did they take out the part about worshipping idols and make up for that by splitting another commandment into 2?
LOL…sorry…that was funny…Moses was a Jew.
It didn’t, The Protestants combined two into one 1600 years after The Catholic Church. Who gave those men 16 centuries after Christ the authority to change what had always been from the time of The Apostles up to that time?Why did they take out the part about worshipping idols and make up for that by splitting another commandment into 2?