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sambos671
Guest
I did say compiled or put together. I meant from sayings and writings already made. I understand the rabbinic teachings were passed orally. However, I see a couple of things at work. The Jewish OT seperated from the more comonly heald LXX. Occured around 70 AD. Indicating which books could defile the hand. I wonder why at that time the Talmud was not compiled. Why three hundred years later? My suspicion is the growth of christianity and Jewish converts that the rabbis felt didn’t understand their own faith. I mean the diaspora began long before. BTW the NT as we have it was compiled long after Jesus and wasn’t nailed down (so to speak) until Athenasius except for the gosples. And yes the teachings began with Jesus.Do you understand the difference, I hope, between “compiled” and “passed down”?
Why do you think the teachings contained in what is now known as “the Talmud” were always called the ORAL law?
They were orally handed down, and with the destruction of the Temple, a need was felt to commit them to writing so they would not be lost.
That does not mean the teachings of what is now known as “the Talmud” BEGAN after the rise of Christianity; it simply means they were set into WRITING at that time.
Would it be fair for me to say the NT did not exist until long after Jesus died? The teachings existed, but they were not set into writing until much later.