I might have mentioned earlier that I am no theologian. Somebody pleeeaaaase help me to understand the following things.
- When did the RC bishop begin to have primacy over the other bishops? Who determined that? Was this decision taken when the church was still truly ONE? If not, i would take it with a pinch of salt.Do not get me wrong, i think it would be a good idea for the church to be united under one authority, be it a pope/partriach or a synod*.
**When we talk about Primacy for the Roman Church, there are several aspects to remember,
one is that Rome had a primacy of position. It was the capital of the empire and this fact alone gave the Roman Church immense prestige. It also gave the Church there access to potential members, educational facilities, wealth ,power . and so on.
Eventually this state of things made the Bishop of Rome virtually the Emperor’s parish priest. It is interesting that when the Church was in ferment, the bishops turned not to Rome for an answer, but to the Emperor. Various Emperors simply passed their religious troubles and problems again, not to Rome, but to the Church and Constantine called the first Ecumenical Council of Nicea! At least two Emperors gave the popes power to use the state police to enforce religious decisions made by the papacy! Later at the Council of Sardica , the Council at the wish of the State, gave the Bishop of Rome power to appoint adjudicators to settle disputes between bishops that couldn’t other wise be agreed
on. The Church through the Ecumenical Councils also gave the Bishop of Rome, (Old Rome,) the title of Patriarch of the West, whilst a later Council took a similar stance with the Bishop of Constantinople, (New Rome, giving him the title of Patriarch of the East.
This was the work of the Church, but, it made the two Patriarchs no more than First amongst equals.
The prestige,power and authority of the Bishop of Rome soared with the publication of several forgeries that claimed to give the Pope immense political power. These were the Donation of Constantine, and the Isadorian Rescripts. They pretended to put the Bishop on an immense pinnacle putting him politically and religiously above the rest of Christendom. He became virtually the owner of virtually all the known world. The City of Rome became his and all the broad lands of Northern Italy. In time he gave the Spaniards the southern part of America, the Norman Kings were given Ireland and the whole family of the German Emperors were practically wiped out because the opposed these ideas. They were not exposed as forgeries till the late 16th, Cent after 800 years of dissemination and powerful exposure.
It has to be noted that these ideas regarding the political power of the papacy were responsible,to a large extent, for the invasion of England by William the cConquerer, The invasion of William of Orange and of course the persecution of the Roman Catholics in 1570. At this time they not only broke away from the ancient church, but were involved in a treasonous plot to overthrow the government of Elizabeth.
Note Well!
For the authority of the Bishop of Rome certain biblical texts are quoted they do not mention the papacy or indeed Rome. There’s no mention of authority to the Bishop of Rome other than that given by the Emperors or the Church. Nothing in Scripture or tradition.
LFD.**