Why do Muslims believe that the Modern New Testament is corrupted?

  • Thread starter Thread starter Stephen0
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
Hi

But that is wrongly understood. There is no verse in Quran which has been abrogated. Quran has encompassed all good and rational teaching of all the RevealedReligions of the World; and hence all of them stands abrogated with Quran. That is the true meaning of the verse 2:107:

I think it is now clear to you.

Thanks
If your interpretation is correct, how come Allah says that the former revelations were abrogated or caused to be forgotten by the Koran when Jews and Christians do not believe in the Koran as a divine revelation and do not forget anything of their scripture??? Likewise, how come Allah asks Christians to judge with what is written in their Scripture (Injeel) if Injeel is really abrogated by the Koran?
 
actually muhamed claimed that new testament is corrupted so muslims think that its corrupted.if muhammed claimed that he(muhammad)is god himself then muslim must belived that.and actually muslims started worship of muhammad mentaly.
Mohammad could never claim that the former revelations had been corrupted because he desperately needed those texts to convince Jews and Christians that he was the final messenger! This is why he recurrently got his scribes to write into his Koran verses which contended that the Koran was revealed only to CONFIRM the books coming before it.
 
You really do need to read this webpage which adequately explains the history of man’s corruption of both the Old and New Testaments.
Do not be deceived by the nonsense on this web site folks! On its very first page it quotes 1 John 5:7 and I repeat that quote here "For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one."

Now I don’t know which Bible they are quoting from, but that ain’t in my RSV or NIV Bibles!

From the RSV Bible 1 John 5:7-8 "[7] And the Spirit is the witness, because the Spirit is the truth. [8] There are three witnesses, the Spirit, the water, and the blood; and these three agree. "

From the NIV Bible 1 John 5:7-8 "[7] For there are three that testify: [8] the Spirit, the water and the blood; and the three are in agreement."

Now you judge for yourselves who corrupts what!

Blessings

BHTech
 
You really do need to read this webpage which adequately explains the history of man’s corruption of both the Old and New Testaments.
Here is a better quote for the Muslims out there and you can go look it up to see if it is real:

1 John 5:10-12
**[10] He who believes in the Son of God has the testimony in himself. He who does not believe God has made him a liar, because he has not believed in the testimony that God has borne to his Son.
[11] And this is the testimony, that God gave us eternal life, and this life is in his Son.
[12] He who has the Son has life; he who has not the Son of God has not life. **

Blessings

BHTech
 
I have asked before. If they were corrupted, Allah would have known when and how and what was changed. Why did Allah not list out the problems so Muhammed could better teach the poor misguided souls?
 
A book is a book, and can kill you, as Paul said :

Who also hath made us able ministers of the new testament; not of the letter, but of the spirit: for the letter killeth, but the spirit giveth life.
2 Corinthians, 3-6

We are adopted sons of God and His Spirit of Life, God is Spirit

We are not sons of a book, or rituals

A lot of things can be refuted, but it is useless
 
By the way

Ask this to muslims :

If the Qu’ran is the Verbatim Word of God unchanged, how do you interpret the Qu’ran ? literally or not ?

If it isn’t interpreted literally then you make changes and adulterations to the verbatim word of God by your own choice

If you make it literally you will became a fundamentalist and a terrorist

Catholicism, however, doesn’t claim such a thing
 
For those who are asking why did God allow the Bible to get corrupted, they need to look at what Jesus (pbuh) himself says in the Bible:

"I was sent only to the lost sheep of Israel." (Matthew 15:24) and also “These twelve Jesus sent out with the following instructions: 'Do not go among the Gentiles or enter any town of the Samaritans. Go rather to the lost sheep of Israel.” (Matthew 10:5-6)

And so, since Prophet Jesus (pbuh) was only sent to the lost sheep of Israel, then there really was no reason why Allah would need to preserve the Gospel that was given to him, was there?

The Prophet Muhammad (pbuh), on the other hand, was sent as a Mercy for all of humankind and he is the Seal of the Prophets and so Allah has indeed promised to protect and preserve the Qur’an till the time when the world comes to an end.
 
For those who are asking why did God allow the Bible to get corrupted, they need to look at what Jesus (pbuh) himself says in the Bible:

"I was sent only to the lost sheep of Israel." (Matthew 15:24) and also “These twelve Jesus sent out with the following instructions: 'Do not go among the Gentiles or enter any town of the Samaritans. Go rather to the lost sheep of Israel.” (Matthew 10:5-6)

And so, since Jesus (pbuh) was only sent to the lost sheep of Israel, then there really was no reason why Allah would need to preserve the Gospel that was given to him, was there?

The Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) on the other hand was sent for all of humankind and he is the Seal of the Prophets and so Allah has indeed promised to protect and preserve the Qur’an till the time when the world comes to an end.
Hamba,
Jesus also said that the Gentiles could have what the Children of Isreal rejected.

Please, is there any reason why the exact nature, time, and way the Bible was corrupted was not given? Would it not make it easier to show us where it is wrong and who changed it and why they did it?
 
For those who are asking why did God allow the Bible to get corrupted, they need to look at what Jesus (pbuh) himself says in the Bible:

"I was sent only to the lost sheep of Israel." (Matthew 15:24) and also “These twelve Jesus sent out with the following instructions: 'Do not go among the Gentiles or enter any town of the Samaritans. Go rather to the lost sheep of Israel.” (Matthew 10:5-6)

And so, since Jesus (pbuh) was only sent to the lost sheep of Israel, then there really was no reason why Allah would need to preserve the Gospel that was given to him, was there?

The Prophet Muhammad (pbuh), on the other hand, was sent as a Mercy for all of humankind and he is the Seal of the Prophets and so Allah has indeed promised to protect and preserve the Qur’an till the time when the world comes to an end.
That was before the death and resurrection of Jesus, much BEFORE THE REDEMPTION OF HUMANITY

you just don’t understand that God’s mystery, you just understand flesh mysteries made by man
 
For those who are asking why did God allow the Bible to get corrupted, they need to look at what Jesus (pbuh) himself says in the Bible:

"I was sent only to the lost sheep of Israel." (Matthew 15:24) and also “These twelve Jesus sent out with the following instructions: 'Do not go among the Gentiles or enter any town of the Samaritans. Go rather to the lost sheep of Israel.” (Matthew 10:5-6)

And so, since Jesus (pbuh) was only sent to the lost sheep of Israel, then there really was no reason why Allah would need to preserve the Gospel that was given to him, was there?

The Prophet Muhammad (pbuh), on the other hand, was sent for all of humankind and he is the Seal of the Prophets and so Allah has indeed promised to protect and preserve the Qur’an till the time when the world comes to an end.
Friend there is an old saying. When you take a text out of its Context, without looking at the rest of it, you end up with a Pretext for error. Such is the case for you.

Blessings

BHTech
 
For those who are asking why did God allow the Bible to get corrupted, they need to look at what Jesus (pbuh) himself says in the Bible:

"I was sent only to the lost sheep of Israel." (Matthew 15:24) and also “These twelve Jesus sent out with the following instructions: 'Do not go among the Gentiles or enter any town of the Samaritans. Go rather to the lost sheep of Israel.” (Matthew 10:5-6)

And so, since Prophet Jesus (pbuh) was only sent to the lost sheep of Israel, then there really was no reason why Allah would need to preserve the Gospel that was given to him, was there?

The Prophet Muhammad (pbuh), on the other hand, was sent as a Mercy for all of humankind and he is the Seal of the Prophets and so Allah has indeed promised to protect and preserve the Qur’an till the time when the world comes to an end.
Please read the text around Matthew 15:24 and subsequent others to prevent yourself from displaying flashes of ignorance in the future.

[21] And Jesus went away from there and withdrew to the district of Tyre and Sidon.
[22] And behold, a Canaanite woman from that region came out and cried, “Have mercy on me, O Lord, Son of David; my daughter is severely possessed by a demon.”
[23] But he did not answer her a word. And his disciples came and begged him, saying, “Send her away, for she is crying after us.”
[24] He answered, “I was sent only to the lost sheep of the house of Israel.”
[25] But she came and knelt before him, saying, “Lord, help me.”
[26] And he answered, “It is not fair to take the children’s bread and throw it to the dogs.”
[27] She said, “Yes, Lord, yet even the dogs eat the crumbs that fall from their masters’ table.”
[28] Then Jesus answered her, “O woman, great is your faith! Be it done for you as you desire.” And her daughter was healed instantly.

BHTech
 
Please, is there any reason why the exact nature, time, and way the Bible was corrupted was not given? Would it not make it easier to show us where it is wrong and who changed it and why they did it?
I think the BIG question that you are really asking is → Why were we created?

The question of ‘Why were we created and what is the purpose of our existence?’ is just so very fundamental and so supremely important in our reasons to even follow any faith at all… that it seems to me so incredulous that any scripture would not spell it out in very clear and unmistakable terms.

After all, God is NOT the author of confusion… and what could be more confusing to the creations if they themselves are not sure of the reason why they were created by their Creator and the purpose of their existence in this world?
 
I think the BIG question that you are really asking is → Why were we created?

The question of ‘Why were we created and what is the purpose of our existence?’ is just so very fundamental and so supremely important in our reasons to even follow any faith at all… that it seems to me so incredulous that any scripture would not spell it out in very clear and unmistakable terms.

After all, God is NOT the author of confusion… and what could be more confusing to the creations if they themselves are not sure of the reason why they were created by their Creator and the purpose of their existence in this world?
Well, we were created to Know God, Love God, and Serve God in this World so that we may do the same in the Next.

No confusion about that.
 
Well, we were created to Know God, Love God, and Serve God in this World so that we may do the same in the Next.

No confusion about that.
Does the Bible state this in clear and unmistakable terms?

I do not think so.
 
I think the BIG question that you are really asking is → Why were we created?
No, the simple direct question was ‘Would it not make it easier to show us where it is wrong and who changed it and why they did it?’
After all, God is NOT the author of confusion…
This then excludes the Qur’an being of God.
…and what could be more confusing to the creations if they themselves are not sure of the reason why they were created by their Creator and the purpose of their existence in this world?
Not knowing…or caring… who spoke in the name of God. Are you fulfilling ‘allahs cause’?
 
Please read the text around Matthew 15:24 and subsequent others to prevent yourself from displaying flashes of ignorance in the future.
Yeah, you right

In interfaith discussions of muslims forums :

I was given a ban warning by quoting verses of the Qu’ran out of context

I was given a ban for 1 month to interpret the Qu’ran literally

In Here :

imanway.com/en/forumdisplay.php?f=18

I was given a permanent baning for being against muslim ethics and quoting Sahih Bukhari, Volume 7, Book 62, Number 64

in here :

turntoislam.com/forum/showthread.php?t=32864

And know I have found a new type of interfaith muslim forum

Whatever you post is previous viewed and filtered by a moderator

in here :

islamicity.com/forum/forum_topics.asp?FID=10

I’m glad to know that this type of biased and brainwashed discussions isn’t adopted from us catholics
 
Does the Bible state this in clear and unmistakable terms?

I do not think so.
Well,

Here is a difference between Islam and Christianity. We would say that the ENTIRE Bible is the statement to that effect, as it shows how God has tried over and over for the relationship and Man has turned from him, until God sent His only Son to suffer, die and rise again so that whomever beleived in him might live. God holds our hand in times of trouble and in good times, he does not force us to accept Him or make it so that our ability to think is impeded.

Islam wants a clear answer. I am not sure why it is not clear enough in the Bible.
 
I think the BIG question that you are really asking is → Why were we created?

The question of ‘Why were we created and what is the purpose of our existence?’ is just so very fundamental and so supremely important in our reasons to even follow any faith at all… that it seems to me so incredulous that any scripture would not spell it out in very clear and unmistakable terms.

After all, God is NOT the author of confusion… and what could be more confusing to the creations if they themselves are not sure of the reason why they were created by their Creator and the purpose of their existence in this world?
You are side stepping the issue here. The question which you have not answered is, can you show us via another document other than the Koran which we outright reject, which definitively shows the Bible is incorrect? In other words if you could provide what was originally written and we can contrast that with what we have now, then that would be definite proof of the corruption in the Bible.

The Koran came after the Bible so the onus is on you to provide me a Catholic with that proof.

BHTech
 
You are side stepping the issue here. The question which you have not answered is, can you show us via another document other than the Koran which we outright reject, which definitively shows the Bible is incorrect? In other words if you could provide what was originally written and we can contrast that with what we have now, then that would be definite proof of the corruption in the Bible.

The Koran came after the Bible so the onus is on you to provide me a Catholic with that proof.

BHTech
Since you are not particularly interested in big questions, then perhaps small examples would be of more interest to you.

The following is just one instance where the Bible does not get it quite right but the Qur’an, on the other hand, gets it absolutely spot on.

THE WORD “PHARAOH” IN THE QUR’AN

In the Old Testament, the Egyptian ruler during the period of Prophet Abraham (pbuh) and Prophet Joseph (pbuh) are named “Pharaoh”. However, this title was actually employed after the eras in which these two Prophets lived.

While addressing the Egyptian ruler at the time of Prophet Joseph (pbuh), the word “Al-Malik” in Arabic is used in the Qur’an: It refers to a ruler, king or sultan:

The King said, ‘Bring him to me straight away!’… (Qur’an, 12:50)

The ruler of Egypt in the time of the Prophet Moses (pbuh) is referred to as “Pharaoh”. This distinction in the Qur’an is not made in the Old and New Testaments nor by Jewish historians. In the Bible, the word “Pharaoh” is used, in every reference to an Egyptian monarch. On the other hand, the Qur’an is far more concise and accurate in the terminology it employs.

The use of the word “Pharaoh” in Egyptian history belongs only to the late period. This particular title began to be employed in the 14th century B.C., during the reign of Amenhotep IV. The Prophet Joseph (pbuh) lived at least 200 years before that time.

The Encyclopaedia Britannica says that the word “Pharaoh” was a title of respect used from the New Kingdom (beginning with the 18th dynasty; B.C. 1539-1292) until the 22nd dynasty (B.C. 945-730), after which this term of address became the title of the king. Further information on this subject comes from the Academic American Encyclopaedia, which states that the title of Pharaoh began to be used in the New Kingdom.

As we have seen, the use of the word “Pharaoh” dates from a specific period in history. For that reason, the fact that the Qur’an distinguishes between the different Egyptian titles in different Egyptian eras is yet another proof that the Qur’an is the verbatim Speech of Allah.

**In this way We give you news of what has gone before and We have given you a reminder direct from Us. Those who turn away from it will bear a heavy burden on the Day of Rising. ** … (Qur’an, 20:99-100)
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top