Jeanne S,
re: “Christ’s first miracle was performed at his Mother’s request…Cana.”
Actually, it wasn’t. She simply made a comment: “They have no wine.” And to this the Messiah responded: “Woman, what does your concern have to do with me?”
In addition to Church Militant’s response, I’d also point out the following:
Ti emoi kai soi gynai?
Ti (what)
emoi (
to me)
kai (
and)
soi (
to thee/you)
gynai (woman)?
Note the question is stated in the
plural. IOW, what has their (wedding hosts’) problem (out of wine) to do with
US (Christ and Mary); You and I;
vis a vis my (our?) mission.
Clearly this is not a rebuke to her; it’s Christ resisting her
request–for to acquiesce to her implicit request/suggestion–would be to compromise HIS timing, as to commencing His (their?) mission.
As for it not being a ‘request’–(call it a suggestion if you prefer)–it is unmistakably implicit via her simple observation–that obviously carried with it, more than just a pointing out of the obvious–
this is easily discernible (in fact, undeniable)–by Christ’s response–no matter how you interpret it–for even if Christ rebuked her…
what exactly was He rebuking, if not her implicit request/suggestion???
…and it’s further
confirmed, by what He actually
does afterward (i.e.–performs the miracle).
What prompted Christ to perform this miracle, if there was no implicit request/suggestion in Mary’s mere
observation?
Your indoctrinated, protestant interpretation simply does not gel with what Christ does; His ACTIONS add all the clarity and confirmation needed here to dispense with the silly, instinctively anti-Marian interpretation championed by the poisoned protestant mind.
Back to the plurality of Christ’s comment…
New American Standard Bible --nb=protestant bible.
And Jesus said to her, "Woman, what does that have to do with us? My hour has not yet come."
and
Douay-Rheims Bible
And Jesus saith to her: Woman, what is that to me and to thee? my hour is not yet come.
among others.
Mary was at Christ’s side for 30 years prior to the wedding at Cana. He was her child. He learned much from her, and was
obedient to her (Luke 2:51).
If Christ sought to rebuke His mother, or disdain her, or such…I suspect it would have come about much clearer than through the protestants’ anti-Marian, anti-Catholic acrobatic interpretation of scripture, that requires that we neglect that He actually performed the miracle…that She was present with Him at the Passion…at the foot of the cross…and at the Pentecost (to say nothing of the Nativity, and the 30 years prior to Christ commencing His ministry, etc…).
Finally, as I and others have pointed out, the reference to Mary as “woman” in the Gospels, serves as the nexus connecting the “woman” of Genesis (Eve to the New Eve), through the “woman” of the Gospels (explicitly, Mary, Mother of God), to the “woman” of Revelation (the woman ‘
clothed with the sun, with the moon under her feet…a crown of twelve stars…with child and wailed aloud in pain as she labored to give birth’…).