Why do Roman Catholics not accept Sola Scriptura?

[justasking4]

Church Militant;3293709]

Originally Posted by justasking4
What is your defintion of SS?

Church Militant
Didn’t you read the excerpt that your buddy OS posted by James Akin? So far as I know, your definition of SS is the formal sufficiency of scripture. Is that accurate?
Since its so easy to be misunderstood on these forums i prefer people to articulate their beliefs in 2-3 sentences. What do you mean by the “sufficiency of scripture”?

Quote:justasking4
Not so. What this means you can’t be consistent with the rest of Scripture when it uses the same word (brother) in different contexts.

Church Militant
So? My point is that there is no scriptural basis for alleging that these people were blood siblings of Christ. ‘Brethren of the Lord’

Yes

Quote:justasking4
Are you saying its not unnatural to read it this way?

Church Militant
I’m saying it makes better sense than your version.

Not so. If the gospels writers wanted to convey that Jesus’ brothers were really cousins they would have used a different greek word.

Quote:justasking4
Where is this evidence to be found?

Church Militant
Will you read it if I offer it to you?

Yes. Then we can perhaps discuss it to.

 

[justasking4]

Didn’t you read the excerpt that your buddy OS posted by James Akin? So far as I know, your definition of SS is the formal sufficiency of scripture. Is that accurate?So? My point is that there is no scriptural basis for alleging that these people were blood siblings of Christ. 'Brethren of the Lord’I’m saying it makes better sense than your version. Will you read it if I offer it to you?

i read the article you reference and here is just one of many problems with it. Here is a quote from it:

"Because neither Hebrew nor Aramaic (the language spoken by Christ and his disciples) had a special word meaning “cousin,” speakers of those languages could use either the word for “brother” or a circumlocution, such as “the son of my uncle.” But circumlocutions are clumsy, so the Jews often used “brother.”

The problem is that the gospels were written in Greek and not Hebrew or Aramaic. If the gospel writers had intended to convey that these brothers were in reality His cousins they would have used the word anepsios which occurs in Colossians 4:10 or sungeneis which occurs in Luke 1:36.

As you can see the catholic understanding falls short.

 

[Therese_Martin]

Note:

This thread is closed. Thanks to all who participated in the discussion.