D
dyluck
Guest
Dokimas, can I interject/ support you here for a sec. Lets say, by chance, that baptism by water or a lack of baptism by water or any acts of man had an impact on one’s ability to be saved.I like your insurance analogy. That’s why I believe children are ‘grandfathered’ in by the love and grace of God without baptism until they can deside for themselves.
Also, of the thousands that were baptized in the NT, only 5 households are mentioned where all were baptized. The odds are very good that those 5 households did not have children at the time of the baptism.
Wouldn’t then works be part of our salvation?
Would God, the creator of this universe, require that we have caviets to salvation if we are too young, or converted at the last minute before one died and was unble to be water baptized?
I know the bible says that we must be baptized to enter the kingdom of heaven; however, Jesus makes this deciaration. My question is, how is it that Jesus baptizes? by water or by spirit? Didn’t John the baptist not say “there is one who is coming that baptizes with the holy spirit / fire”. Is not the baptism of the holy spirit not a change of one’s nature, death to sinful nature and a resurection of a new man?
If it is spirit then how can we hold claim to when and if this occurs?
I believe that baptism by water is a public declairation of what God already did which was regenerated you / Romans 6. I believe the baptism that has to do with salvation is the spiritual one (the regeneration part).
Baptism by water cannot be a piece of requirement of salvation because the bible implicitly says that we cannot boast of our own works.