G
Gorgias
Guest
LOL! I didn’t realize that there was a distinction between ‘truth’ and ‘accuracy’!Your points are technically true - but are they accurate?
Then interpret the passage when you proclaim it; don’t change the passage to fit your interpretation.Jesus said “Gehenna” but did He mean that one would spend eternity in an Israeli valley where corpses were burned? Does not the doctrine of hell describe what Jesus meant, rather than what He said?
You seem to be advocating a sort of ‘dynamic equivalence’ in Scripture interpretation – I’m shocked!
And here’s another problem with attempting to insert doctrine into the text of Scripture, rather than reading doctrine as it appears in Scripture: you’ve decided that this passage is speaking of the sacramentality of Reconciliation. But what if it’s not? I would argue, I think, that he’s referring back to the wording he used in 1 Cor – when making an appeal to excommunicate the man committing incest, Paul called upon Christ as his authority; similarly, here, Christ is Paul’s authority in his forgiveness of Corinthians. Not necessarily an appeal to sacramentality, per se, but to the authority of Christ which resides in Paul…No one has ever explained to me just how to forgive sins outside of the presence of Christ. Can it even be done by a Christian?
Keep the prayer the same, of course. Yet, although I don’t love the translation here, it does make sense. μεγαλύνω can mean that “I make” something great or “I proclaim” that something is great. The meaning here is clearly the latter: Mary isn’t doing anything for God’s greatness, but is simply declaring that God is great. ‘Magnify’, while traditional – and perhaps archaically spot-on – takes on an active sense of doing or creating in contemporary English; this would be the wrong translation here. Does it hurt our ears? Yep. Is it a bad translation? I might argue that it is not…Further, should the Church change Mary’s “Magnificat” to the “Proclamat” for the sake of literary accuracy?
St Jerome made a judgment call on how best to translate a tricky Greek participle. Does the Greek use the word ‘full’? Nope. Is “full of grace” a reasonable translation? Yep. Is it perfect? Nope. Are there other reasonable ways to translate κεχαριτωμένη? Yep. (I’m not going to argue that ‘highly favored one’ is the best among them, but to argue that “full of grace” is the only reasonable translation is foolish…!)Was Saint Jerome completely wrong in the texts he used, and in the result he obtained from them?
No, but neither should later manuscript evidence and better understanding of the source languages be downplayed!Should Church Tradition, which fed the first two or three generations of Christians, be downplayed?
And there we have it… it’s the fault of Vatican II. It’s always the fault of Vatican II.The same zeitgeist which motivated the implementation of VII held some amount of sway over the translation and notes of the NAB.