Hi Maria, I was just rereading some of these posts and I saw your “what say you” at the end of this post and I thought I had better respond. First of all here is a site you might find interesting.
www.piney.com/FathClemPedIVIb.html
As for the arcticle you post. It has some serious flaws. Under the heading “Again and Again” It states: The Jews then disputed among themselves, saying, ‘How can this man give us his flesh to eat?’" (John 6:51–52).
His listeners were stupefied because now they understood Jesus literally—and correctly." Well they obviously didn’t understand Him correctly because it says that “they walked no more with Him” The only ones that stayed were the twelve.
Under the heading No Corrections is this:" Notice that Jesus made no attempt to soften what he said, no attempt to correct “misunderstandings,” for there were none. Our Lord’s listeners understood him perfectly well. They no longer thought he was speaking metaphorically. If they had, if they mistook what he said, why no correction?"
Of coarse He didn’t make any corrections because He didn’t make any mistakes. He said exactly what He wanted to say and they mistook Him and as a result walked no more with Him. As to why He didn’t call them back and explain to them what He meant, refer to Matt13:10-17 which I posted previosly
Under "Merely Figurative? It states:
They quote John 6:35: “Jesus said to them, ‘I am the bread of life; he who comes to me shall not hunger, and he who believes in me shall never thirst.’” They claim that coming to him is bread, having faith in him is drink. Thus, eating his flesh and blood merely means believing in Christ.
As if beleiving in Christ were a small thing. Hear this well Maria. Our eternal destiny hangs on wether or not we “merely” believe in Jesus.
Then there is this:
But there is a problem with that interpretation. As Fr. John A. O’Brien explains, “The phrase ‘to eat the flesh and drink the blood,’ when used figuratively among the Jews, as among the Arabs of today, meant to inflict upon a person some serious injury, especially by calumny or by false accusation. To interpret the phrase figuratively then would be to make our Lord promise life everlasting to the culprit for slandering and hating him, which would reduce the whole passage to utter nonsense” (O’Brien, The Faith of Millions, 215). For an example of this use, see Micah 3:3.
Who is this so called fr. Obrien and why does he get to say what is the only thing Jesus could have meant if He were talking figuratively. What Jesus meant by eating His flesh was digesting His words Jn 1:14
I’m going to sign off for now. It’s getting late. I’ll pick it up tomorrow.
In Christ Richard