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VeritasLuxMea
Guest
I don’t use NFP or contraception but I was just curious about this. I know that NFP requires grave/serious reason (forget the terminology, but something like that), but I was just wondering if someone could explain why.
My confusion comes from the fact that - it would seem that a married couple could choose to have sex or abstain as they please for any period of time.
So for example, my wife and I could go 30 days without having sex because we’re busy or just not in the mood that particular month or whatever - or we could have sex every day for 30 days in a row - because we both took a long vacation and didn’t have too many obligations to interfere. And it was my understanding that, for the most part, that kind of thing is up to the couple’s discretion.
So I’m not entirely clear as to why using NFP would require a particular reason if frequently engaging - or refraining from sex is OK otherwise.
Thanks.
My confusion comes from the fact that - it would seem that a married couple could choose to have sex or abstain as they please for any period of time.
So for example, my wife and I could go 30 days without having sex because we’re busy or just not in the mood that particular month or whatever - or we could have sex every day for 30 days in a row - because we both took a long vacation and didn’t have too many obligations to interfere. And it was my understanding that, for the most part, that kind of thing is up to the couple’s discretion.
So I’m not entirely clear as to why using NFP would require a particular reason if frequently engaging - or refraining from sex is OK otherwise.
Thanks.