Why does the Bible not specifically talk about abortion or contraception?

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Kiruba45

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A common argument I hear from those who dissent from the Church’s teachings on abortion and contraception is that the Bible doesn’t really talk about either of the two so anyone condemning them is just saying his or her personal opinion. When I looked into the Bible myself, I found that nowhere did it specifically mention and forbid abortion and contraception though it went into detail in the Old Testament about what foods one could eat and what clothes one could wear. Why would this be if we as Catholics are supposed to be against both? It is not like abortive and contraceptive methods were unknown back when the Bible was written. I am not asking this because I completely disagree with church teaching. I am just confused by the Bible’s seeming silence on the matter which allows for more liberal Catholics and Christians to claim that the Church is just trying to control what women do with their bodies.
 
Im not an expert on the Bible, so I’ll let others answer as to where, if anywhere, the Bible forbids those things. Either way it doesn’t matter though, since Catholic teaching about abortion and contraception doesn’t come directly from the Bible, it comes from philosophical argumentation (namely Aristotlean-Thomastic metaphysics). Catholics don’t believe in sola scriptura, so even if the Bible is silent on those topics, that wouldn’t necessarily disprove the Catholic teaching.
 
It does however have to be born in mind that this was not a controversial issue in the ancient world, while most forms of contraception did not exist in any event.
 
Kiruba45 said:
When I looked into the Bible myself, I found that nowhere did it specifically mention and forbid abortion and contraception
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  1. Thou Shalt Not Murder.
  1. We are not a Sola Scriptura church. The fact that something is not literally mentioned in Scripture does not mean it’s allowed.
edward_george1 said:
The Bible does talk about contraception and abortion, which have been around since ancient times.
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  1. What Father says.
 
Sometimes silence in a text is because the answer was so universally obvious to everyone at the time, it wasn’t worth writing down.

E.g. I’m not sure (maybe someone let me know), but is torture explicitly condemned in the Bible? I don’t recall that it is. But if I went back and asked the authors why they didn’t specifically mention and forbid [insert horrific torture practice here; I’d rather not, for the sake of sensitive eyes], and whether their failure to mention it means they believe God permits and/or approves of it, I imagine they’d look at me like I was out of my mind.

Again, silence often counts in favour of the traditional understanding of something. Parchment and writing resources were expensive in ancient times, and you couldn’t just write infinite words. So the limited words were spent on things people were likely to actually debate and need an answer about. Whereas more obscure topics that can be deduced by knowing other answers, or topics that NO ONE would debate (at the time), because they were so clearly and obviously wrong, don’t get a lot of word count. And sacred Tradition (for Catholics, continued in the Magisterium of the Universal Church) passes down to us that consistency with God’s revelation to man, unfolding across time, teaches that abortion (that is, the murder of children) and contraception (that is, the attempt to ‘take’ mere pleasure from the holy act of sex, without giving oneself entirely to one’s partner, fertility et al) are forbidden and inconsistent with holy conduct.
 
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It does mention them.

It’s just that English translations of the Bible (and perhaps other languages too) have mistranslated pharmakeia.

Or if not “mistranslated,” modern man misunderstands the meaning.

Please read the article Father posted above
 
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Kiruba45 said:
A common argument I hear from those who dissent from the Church’s teachings on abortion and contraception is that the Bible doesn’t really talk about either of the two so anyone condemning them is just saying his or her personal opinion. When I looked into the Bible myself, I found that nowhere did it specifically mention and forbid abortion and contraception though it went into detail in the Old Testament about what foods one could eat and what clothes one could wear. Why would this be if we as Catholics are supposed to be against both? It is not like abortive and contraceptive methods were unknown back when the Bible was written. I am not asking this because I completely disagree with church teaching. I am just confused by the Bible’s seeming silence on the matter which allows for more liberal Catholics and Christians to claim that the Church is just trying to control what women do with their bodies.
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Drugs were used as abortifactants. Sorcery (below) is pharmakeia (Greek).

Galatians 20
19 Now the works of the flesh are obvious: fornication, impurity, licentiousness, 20 idolatry, sorcery, enmities, strife, jealousy, anger, quarrels, dissensions, factions, 21 envy, drunkenness, carousing, and things like these. I am warning you, as I warned you before: those who do such things will not inherit the kingdom of God.
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Strong’s Definition G5331 pharmakeia (far-mak-i’-ah);
  1. the use or the administering of drugs
  2. poisoning
  3. sorcery, magical arts, often found in connection with idolatry and fostered by it
  4. metaph. the deceptions and seductions of idolatry
Also Hebrew H3785 (keh’-shef).
 
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Vico said:
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Kiruba45:
A common argument I hear from those who dissent from the Church’s teachings on abortion and contraception is that the Bible doesn’t really talk about either of the two so anyone condemning them is just saying his or her personal opinion. When I looked into the Bible myself, I found that nowhere did it specifically mention and forbid abortion and contraception though it went into detail in the Old Testament about what foods one could eat and what clothes one could wear. Why would this be if we as Catholics are supposed to be against both? It is not like abortive and contraceptive methods were unknown back when the Bible was written. I am not asking this because I completely disagree with church teaching. I am just confused by the Bible’s seeming silence on the matter which allows for more liberal Catholics and Christians to claim that the Church is just trying to control what women do with their bodies.
Click to expand...
Drugs were used as abortifactants. Sorcery (below) is pharmakeia (Greek).

Galatians 20
19 Now the works of the flesh are obvious: fornication, impurity, licentiousness, 20 idolatry, sorcery, enmities, strife, jealousy, anger, quarrels, dissensions, factions, 21 envy, drunkenness, carousing, and things like these. I am warning you, as I warned you before: those who do such things will not inherit the kingdom of God.
Click to expand...
Strong’s Definition G5331 pharmakeia (far-mak-i’-ah);
  1. the use or the administering of drugs
  2. poisoning
  3. sorcery, magical arts, often found in connection with idolatry and fostered by it
  4. metaph. the deceptions and seductions of idolatry
Also Hebrew H3785 (keh’-shef).
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It’s ‘funny’ really to see how many people gloss over that or try to imply that St. Paul was only talking about the “sorcery” we see in Hollywood.
 
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The bible is the written word of God which is salvation history (Catechism #76). However, the Church transmits and perpetuates to all generations all that she is and believes through her doctrine, life and worship in Apostolic Tradition (#78). This is the oral word of God as opposed to the written word of God. "And Tradition transmits in its entirety the Word of God which has been entrusted to the apostles by Christ the Lord and the Holy Spirit (#81). That is, if one wants to know the entire (oral) word of God as taught by Jesus to the Apostles he can only find it in Tradition. The Catechism of the Catholic Church (and the Roman Catechism 1566) convey this oral word of God in summary form. Here one finds the creed, sacraments, commandments (including teachings on abortion & contraception) and prayer.
So, in short, one finds the gospel the Apostles were commissioned to preach (Mk 16:15-16) in these catechisms. This is how the Catholic faith has been transmitted for 2,000 years. The written word of God nourishes and testifies to this oral word of God, but it is distinct from the oral.
 
I can’t agree with this argument. YHWH gave Moses over 600 laws, many of which addressed human sexuality. As has been noted the practices both abortion and contraception were known in ancient times and in places that the Hebrews lived. In my opinion, if YHWH is concerned about these issues, He would have specifically addressed them, but the only places that they are addressed is where they are associated with some other transgression as in the case of Onan.
That being said, our Church was given authority over the Law. Therefore, we are bound to obey the Church’s teachings on these matters.
 
undead_rat said:
I can’t agree with this argument. YHWH gave Moses over 600 laws, many of which addressed human sexuality. As has been noted the practices both abortion and contraception were known in ancient times and in places that the Hebrews lived. In my opinion, if YHWH is concerned about these issues, He would have specifically addressed them, but the only places that they are addressed is where they are associated with some other transgression as in the case of Onan.
That being said, our Church was given authority over the Law. Therefore, we are bound to obey the Church’s teachings on these matters.
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Not the only place (such as Onan).
  • Exodus 22:16-17
  • Exodus 21:22-25, (Note that a lesser penalty is required of the master who accidentally kills his slave).
  • Leviticus 18:6-10
  • Jerimiah 3:2
 
phil19034 said:
It’s just that English translations of the Bible (and perhaps other languages too) have mistranslated pharmakeia .

Or if not “mistranslated,” modern man misunderstands the meaning.
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φαρμακεία predominantly meant sorcery, medicine, poison or magical potion in antiquity. For example, the Hellenistic Lexicon Platonicum gives the definition of φαρμακεία as κρήνη ἐξ ἧς οἱ πίνοντες ἀπέθνησκον (“water which results in the drinkers dying”). Chrysostom in Adversus Judaeos grouped φαρμακεία (in the sense of “magical potions”) together with μαγγανεία manganeia (“magical deception”) and ἐπῳδά epoda (“magical amulets”). On the other hand, Gregory Nazianzus used φαρμακεία in the positive sense of “remedy” in his Apologetica.

While it could be used in reference to abortion or abortifacients, it’s a very specific usage which relies on the context to impart that meaning. There are only some two or three examples of this meaning in the >70 attestations of φαρμακεία in the Classical, Hellenistic and Byzantine Greek corpus. In each instance (such as Plutarch’s Parallel Lives), the context of the passage is very clearly that of abortion.
 
why doesn’t The Bible address abortion?
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It does:
Life begins at conception: Jeremiah 1:1
Thou Shall not murder: Exodus 20:13

Because life begins at conception (how else would God know you in the womb?) and because murder is illegal, murdering a baby in the womb is illegal.
what about contraception?
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The story of Onan. He used contraception and was struck down by God for it.
 
First, their premise is wrong. Catholicism is not a bible-based faith. The bible tells us in several places that it is incomplete as to the historical record. Rather, Christ founded a Church and gave it all authority.

Q: On which scripture did the first Church council (Acts 15) rely on to declare for all time that men need not be circumcised?

A: None, as there was none. The Church decided using the guidance of the Holy Spirit combined with the Christ-given power of binding and loosing.

Those who disagree with the Church are well advised to read the catechism sections which apply so that they may know the reasoning which they oppose for the sake of convenience or personal pleasure.

Actually, you might ask them where convenience and personal pleasure are taught in the bible.
 
I am not an expert on the Bible…but I do recall some passage about a man basically “pulling out” and that is was wrong because it didn’tallow procreation. I remember it was in the OT but don’t specifically remember where. Probably ran across it when I was a teenager. Anyway that would be a form of contraception. As for abortion I would just say there are plenty of references to preserving life and with the presumed lack of abortion clinics when the Bible was written I would assume implied since life starts at contraception.
 
Kiruba45 said:
A common argument I hear from those who dissent from the Church’s teachings on abortion and contraception is that the Bible doesn’t really talk about either of the two so anyone condemning them is just saying his or her personal opinion
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Tell them … The Bible doesn’t specifically mention “Bible” either.

The Bible as we know it today - didn’t come into existence until about 400 AD

And there were no Printed Copies until more than 1000 years after Jesus walked this Earth.

POINT? The Bible alone was never an essentiality for Salvation…

)
 
I believe the poster was referring to Jeremiah 1:5 “Before I formed you in the womb I knew you.”

The reference to this seems to only include Jeremiah, and the punishment of Onan seems to be for his refusal to give his brothers widow children, without stretching things, there seem to be no references in the bible prohibiting abortion or contraception in the OT, but we have dropped and added OT laws, “circumcision laws as a poster noted above, dietary laws, etc.” so as long as the Church prohibits anything, we are prohibited from it regardless of what is or isn’t in the bible.
 
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