Why doesn't God heal homosexuals?

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Whoa, what? Could you give me the name of the biblical scholar that said that? Could you give me their denominational background? Is any of this from the first few centuries of Christianity? Or is it just more recent scholarship?
 
1 Corinthians 6: “Or do you not know that wrongdoers will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor men who have sex with men”
 
Andy, I’ve read the Old Testament a few times, you’re wrong.
 
Excuse me how about Leviticus?
Catholics follow everything in Leviticus do we? That’s news! Poor source to base on arguement on. Why not just go with the catechism, far more credibility.
 
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Catholics follow everything in Leviticus do we? That’s news! Poor source to base on arguement on. Why not just go with the catechism, far more credibility.
I was talking about in Old Testament times. Andy seems to think God didn’t hate Homosexual acts in that time period
 
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I was talking about in Old Testament times. Andy seems to think God didn’t hate Homosexual acts in that time period
The thing is that God turned up on earth for a while and he sure didn’t say much about that subject considering how much he “hates” it. You’d think he might have slipped it into the conversation more if it was that high up the agenda. Again, I’d just stick to the catechism if i were you, you’re on much better ground for the arguement you want to make.
 

CCC: Chastity and homosexuality

2357 Homosexuality refers to relations between men or between women who experience an exclusive or predominant sexual attraction toward persons of the same sex. It has taken a great variety of forms through the centuries and in different cultures. Its psychological genesis remains largely unexplained. Basing itself on Sacred Scripture, which presents homosexual acts as acts of grave depravity,141 tradition has always declared that "homosexual acts are intrinsically disordered."142 They are contrary to the natural law. They close the sexual act to the gift of life. They do not proceed from a genuine affective and sexual complementarity. Under no circumstances can they be approved.

2358 The number of men and women who have deep-seated homosexual tendencies is not negligible. This inclination, which is objectively disordered, constitutes for most of them a trial. They must be accepted with respect, compassion, and sensitivity. Every sign of unjust discrimination in their regard should be avoided. These persons are called to fulfill God’s will in their lives and, if they are Christians, to unite to the sacrifice of the Lord’s Cross the difficulties they may encounter from their condition.

2359 Homosexual persons are called to chastity. By the virtues of self-mastery that teach them inner freedom, at times by the support of disinterested friendship, by prayer and sacramental grace, they can and should gradually and resolutely approach Christian perfection.
 
You know, my mom used to say that I have selective hearing, I think that’s what we’re dealing with here.
 
For a start, we are no longer bound by the OT. Secondly, the likely reason for this is that the people who occupied the lands upon which the Hebrews were at the time were pagans who worshiped false idols using gay rites (Ishtar worship featured such and was common in Canaan) and those that were left most likely were still in favor of such practices as they were now living among the Jews. This ruling is speaking of what is unclean as an abomination. Pagan fertility goddess worship by way of gay sex is idolatry. The root of said abomination. Again, it’s not gay sex. It’s gay rites.
If a man lies with a male as with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination; they shall be put to death, their blood is upon them" (Lev. 18:22, 20:13).

If they were talking about idolatry why wouldn’t they say that too? You know, provide context. Sounds like this is only referring to the sexual relations, not temple prostitution.
 
Which, in reality covered perversion.
Are homosexual acts - eg. various kinds of penetration - not a perversion? Does not the nature of man suggest what might be the appropriate venue for such an act?
 
Trouble is there is no logic that leads from two men loving each other to sexual acts. The nature of the sexual act is what it is.
Except there is. How do you imagine homosexuality wasn’t bred out of the gene pool if it plays no role in human evolution? Again, you’re on far better ground with the catechism.
 
The sex life of most homosexuals is very different from most heteros…more partners, shorter hookups, rest area pickups along highways, it’s really all over the map.
I have to correct you. Most homosexuals are not into these things. I know a lot of them. If you are going to make statements like this, please provide unbiased studies with statistics to prove your point.
 
David and Jonathan were in all likelihood gay lovers and God doesn’t say much in the bible.
Right. Keep thinking that.

Your words show that you’ve been brainwashed by liberalizing influences. Most actively gay people disagree with you, and see clearly that the Bible isn’t their ally.
 
Because of the Hebrew word for abomination and the way it is used in this section of the bible. “Ebhah” means what offends the religious sense of the people. Why was gay sex offensive? Because, in all likelihood this section refers to pagan idolatry. Not love. There’s a reason for things to be as they are n the Bible. Just saying that gay is bad isn’t a good reason.
“You shall not lay a male the layings of a woman; it is a to’ebah” (offensive thing)
(Leviticus 18:22).
“And a man who will lay a male the layings of a woman: the two of them have done a to’ebah (offensive thing). They shall be put to death. Their blood is on them”
(Leviticus 20:13).

This is the word you are referring too?

to’ebah is almost always used with a modifying preposition that specifies to whom the action or practice is offensive; second, there are significant examples throughout the Hebrew Bible where the only person to whom to’ebah is offensive is God, or where to’ebah refers to general practices that are not characteristic of any particular ethnicity—for example, its use in Deuteronomy 25:16, which follows a list of possible domestic offenses, such as having two different kinds of weights or measures in the home (a usage repeated throughout the book of Proverbs).
 
If you had written that in a reasonably, grammatically correct manner I may have an idea as to what you’re talking about.
Please enlighten me about all the many grammatical error in my sentence: “When a person says we should stop discriminating against XYZ group or treating them badly, he does not thereby endorse all the activities engaged in by XYZ group.”
 
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