F
Fuerza
Guest
I personally agree that, if we’re not going to drop it completely, we should change it to “through the Son” in order to avoid confusion and put an end to our constantly having to explain what we mean and the linguistic/historical circumstances which caused it to be worded that way. However, I believe the main reason for not doing so is that it would appear to outsiders that we were altering our doctrines. The Church could issue an encyclical explaining the change, but it knows well that anti-Catholics would ignore it and insist that we were reversing doctrine (sort of like what happened with the document on Limbo).The point is, by that same logic the Son always proceeds through the Spirit by perichoresis.
Yet this is never mentioned, why?
Probably because it is unnecessary and confusing. Mentioning the Son proceeding through the Spirit while the Sprit proceeds through the Son is somehow redundant. It should be assumed.
The fact that the solitary filioque phrase was not inserted by the Original Fathers was infintely wise, because it avoids the possible mis-interpretation of the theology as double-procession, a serious error. Using primarily apophatic means of describing theology, the Fathers were loathe to expand upon any idea which might be carried into error.
The Roman Catholic church no longer actively insists on double procession, as it had in the past (so you are right to say that the Orthodox position appears to be like the Catholic position, IMO). Although one will still occasionally encounter traditionalist Roman Catholics who insist upon it. The official Roman Catholic position has appeared to change in recent decades, possibly during the long reign of Pope John Paul II.
What is remarkable to me is the fact that Roman Catholics stubbornly refuse to rephrase the term to state THROUGH the Son, which would more precisely reflect current Roman Catholic teaching.
Michael
I also have to mention, although I’m sure you’ll throw out quotes and documents to insist otherwise, that the Catholic Church has not changed it’s position on “double procession”. The term simply doesn’t mean what the Orthodox try to make it mean. There have been plenty of threads in which this was covered.
Despite that, I do agree with you as I mentioned above. The Filioque is confusing to those in the East. Since the RCC recognize the equivalence of the two formulae, it should either drop it or alter it, at least for the time being. I will, however, keep proclaiming it until Rome decides otherwise.