Why is artificial birth control usage so wrong?

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Answer by Fr.Stephen F. Torraco (EWTN) on 05-07-2007:
“By masturbation is to be understood the deliberate stimulation of the genital organs in order to derive sexual pleasure. Reason alone enables us to know that, by its very nature, masturbation is contrary to the purpose of genital activity. The purpose of genital activity between husband and wife is to GIVE love and to GIVE life, NOT to GET pleasure. Not that there is anything wrong with sexual pleasure. However, the pleasure is supposed to be expressive of self-GIVING between husband and wife, not self-GETTING.”

Thus does contraception express the degradation of marital love.
 
Wow! You are very angry. You keep insisting that you are not saying any thing negative about our beliefs. But it is implicit in your line of questioning that you are out to prove a point.
Well, the only real point I was making was that one decides to practice NFP in order to have sex without children, which you at first resisted, then admitted to. So, I have already proven my point to you, i suppose. My secondary point was that NFP seems to instill a sense of sexual self-righteousness, which you also seem to have demonstrated with a sense superiority. In the mean time, before you finally did admit to my primary point, you made your masturbation commentary, which I do find inflammatory, and you successfully got a good rise out of me, colorful language included at no charge.
Not to mention the fact that you point out how NFP proponents are a fringe.
I was using fringe as a relational reference. Meaning, in the US population, I would venture to say NFP is practiced by less than 1% of the population. In most cases, the term “fringe” would probably be accurate, but if you prefer, feel free to use whatever term would equate to a very, very small minority. Your choice.

And yes, that makes my statement correct, which you seemed to place a great deal of importance on when it comes to the “truth” as you say, but not so much for these cases when you drift off track.
It is very dishonest and lawyerly to ask leading questions and then accuse respondents of poor reading comprehension or dishonesty when the answers elaborate beyond the scope of the question.
No, my questions are not leading questions, they are direct. When a simple question is avoided, then it does appear that one must “corral” the discussion in order to get a straight answer. Eventually you did, and now I am on some strange quest to convince you that your masturbation ideology is not helpful or charitable to your cause. Maybe I will convince you, who knows.
You might as well ask; “when did you stop beating your wife?”.
Eh, what? If this is a reference to my previous comment, I said beating off, which is slang for masturbation. Kinda lost me there… Feel free to comment if you want to clarify.
I would still like to press you on the point that has gotten under your skin so badly.
No, what gets under my skin is your idea you could make comments like that about sex with someones spouse, and somehow that is OK. You didnt answer my question earlier about your being introduced as a bigot. By your logic, that would not be personal nor would it bother you. Somehow I think it would, however.
What is the moral difference between heterosexual genital intercourse while using contraception and any of the following?;
Oral sex,
Mutual masturbation
Anal sex
Your only response has been that almost everyone would say there is a difference and that it depends on what your moral beliefs in general are. That is not an answer. You are dancing around my question now. If it is dependent on a persons general moral standards then just apply yours. What is the difference as you see it?
OK, sure. I assume you mean a married couple, all else being equal. Ill add one to your list:

Contracepted Sex
Planned Sterile Sex using NFP
Oral Sex
Masturbation
Anal Sex

I, personally, see very little difference between the above. None are for the purpose of reproduction. Presumably, they are all a form of expression to a spouse (even if some are not my cup of tea). Sex to achieve pregnancy is about the only thing that categorically falls outside the range.

Of course, you will disagree vehemently with the NFP couple, but, that is just how I see it.

I would be remiss if I failed to restate this falls outside of both of our points.

And again, the only thing that “gets under my skin” is your inflammatory comments mixed with what appears as this smug attitude that “well, its the truth, so just deal with it”. If it was a different topic, and someone directed it towards you, you would not accept it either. ie, my gay neighbor example. Honestly, I should probably listen to my own advice and just let it go. I don’t think you would see why it is inflammatory to hear.
 
@ passing: you are right, I thought there were only two sentences in the quote you highlighted which I was commenting on. murphyjo’s comment still makes some sense, in context.

“precisely none of them having an opportunity to be procreative” and “ensuring all your sex is non-procreative”

Any non-contracepted sex is procreative, objectively, even if the couple is subjectively not fertile (i.e., egg is available to be fertilized) or, if fertile, pregnancy does not result. The act is properly ordered to procreation when the parties do not take action to sterilize the act. It maintains its essential nature when it is unaltered. Same would go for infertile couples, post-menospausal couples, etc.
OK, but you are still sidestepping the point. I am not trying to define how the Church uses the term “procreative”. It is irrelevant. If it makes it easier, just put the term “create a child” or anything similar. The point is to have sex without a pregnancy resulting.

And all of this was an attempt to avoid the issue of NFP existing to allow sex without children, which in the case of murphyjo, he has recanted on. As I just posted, this was part of the verbal dance just to admit to this simple fact, and consequently opened a whole can o worms.
 
Then I apologize for putting words in your mouth. That is what you appeared to be saying due to how you presented your arguments. You are fixated on the fact that contraception is used to avoid pregnancy and NFP can also be used to avoid pregnancy. You appear to see that similarity in ends as a reason why contraception should be acceptable.
Well, what I get fixated on is the denial of the fact that NFP is used to avoid pregnancy. I am quite aware of it.
To a certain extent, your continuous assertion that NFP was designed to allow couples to have sex without getting pregnant contains truth.
Not “to a certain extent”. This makes it sound like a minor point. No, I think the correct term is “almost exclusively”. Meaning, NFP exists almost exclusively to allow couple to have sex without getting pregnant. Again, as I have said a dozen times, if you take away NFPs ability to allow sex without pregnancy, it would serve nearly no purpose and it would likely fade away entirely.
 
PassingThru
NFP is just as much “mutual masturbation”.
False, when used for serious reasons; there is no deliberate barrier placed which is why there is nothing to contracept with Natural Birth Regulation.
With contraception, there is the deliberate rupture of the intimate link between the unitive and procreative meanings of the marital act. With NBR, there is no such rupture. Even in the case in which a couple, using NBR, resorts to the infertile period for marital relations so as to avoid pregnancy (assuming for the sake of argument, for serious reasons) there is no such objective rupture of that link precisely because there is nothing there to contracept.

**Church Teaching And The Morality Of Contraception **
ewtn.com/library/MARRIAGE/SEXSAN.TXT (Chapter 6 of *Sex And The Sanctity Of Human Life *by William E. May published by Christendom Press, Ft. Royal, VA.)
Excerpts:
Abuses of natural family planning do not prove that the regulation of conception by periodic abstinence is, “natural contraception.” This claim rests on the assumption that periodic abstinence is contraceptive because the choice to abstain can be used to avoid a pregnancy when there are serious and legitimate reasons to avoid one and on the assumption that every way of avoiding a pregnancy is contraceptive. The reasoning based on these assumptions is fallacious, as can be shown by formulating explicitly the implicit argument. It can be put as follows: All contraceptive acts are ways of avoiding a pregnancy. But all use of periodic abstinence is a way of avoiding a pregnancy. Therefore all use of periodic abstinence is contraceptive. This is like arguing: All eagles are birds. All pigeons are birds. Therefore all pigeons are eagles.13
Notes:
13. I am grateful to Professor Joseph M. Boyle, Jr., of the Center for Thomistic Studies in the University of St. Thomas in Houston for pointing out this fallacy to me.
 
OK, sure. I assume you mean a married couple, all else being equal. Ill add one to your list:

Contracepted Sex
Planned Sterile Sex using NFP
Oral Sex
Masturbation
Anal Sex

I, personally, see very little difference between the above. None are for the purpose of reproduction. Presumably, they are all a form of expression to a spouse (even if some are not my cup of tea). Sex to achieve pregnancy is about the only thing that categorically falls outside the range.

Of course, you will disagree vehemently with the NFP couple, but, that is just how I see it.
So can you explain to me the difference between a couple seeking to get pregnant and having sex outside of their fertile time and a couple not seeking to get pregnant having sex outside of their fertile time? Because these things are objectively and physically the same. Again you fail to take into account the fact that morality can come in during the ends/intent stage and the means stage. I can sure tell the difference between “normal” sex and anal, oral contraceptive sex, and masturbation. 🤷 Physically, objectively they are different. Even if ones intent is the same.

I think the other problem here is that you are comparing NFP to contraceptive sex but are completely leaving out the norm. Which is neither of these. We must compare contraceptive sex to “normal” sex and we must compare the practice NFP to “normal” sex.

When we compare NFP to not using NFP we see that the only thing that is different is the intent. Physically the act has not changed, it is the same no matter if the couple is seeking or not seeking pregnancy, already pregnant, infertile, or menopausal.

When we compare contraception to not using ABC we find that not only the intent is different but the very act has been changed by the couples actions. Either they have purposefully interrupted a working function of their bodies or placed a barrier between themselves,

You keep bringing up the “NFP allows sex without getting pregnant.” But you have yet to acknowledge that NFP does not allow a couple to have sex without getting pregnant, because they must abstain in order for it to work. (If contraception and NFP were the same why don’t people just use NFP 🤷). Not having sex if very different from having sex but purposefully sterilizing the act. The infertile period of a woman’s cycle is naturally given (unlike contraception). God given infertility is different than a couple taking upon themselves to make their act infertile.

Just so you know, I do/did not practice NFP or contraception to avoid or conceive, besides what was naturally provided after childbirth. (But I did use NFP to track my cycles, to see when my fertility would come back and to date my pregnancies).
 
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murphjos:
You might as well ask; “when did you stop beating your wife?”.
Eh, what? If this is a reference to my previous comment, I said beating off, which is slang for masturbation. Kinda lost me there… Feel free to comment if you want to clarify.
No… “When did you stop beating your wife?” Is a classic (and I thought well known) example of a question designed to trap the respondent into a self incriminating answer. It is not a direct reference to anything you said.
No, what gets under my skin is your idea you could make comments like that about sex with someones spouse, and somehow that is OK. You didnt answer my question earlier about your being introduced as a bigot. By your logic, that would not be personal nor would it bother you. Somehow I think it would, however.
No I would not take it as an insult. If a person had so limited a grasp of the truth as to introduce me a Martian I would not find that insulting either.
…I, personally, see very little difference between the above. None are for the purpose of reproduction. Presumably, they are all a form of expression to a spouse (even if some are not my cup of tea). Sex to achieve pregnancy is about the only thing that categorically falls outside the range… And again, the only thing that “gets under my skin” is your inflammatory comments mixed with what appears as this smug attitude that “well, its the truth, so just deal with it”. If it was a different topic, and someone directed it towards you, you would not accept it either. ie, my gay neighbor example. Honestly, I should probably listen to my own advice and just let it go. I don’t think you would see why it is inflammatory to hear.
How is my statement inflammatory if you see no difference? Adding infertile NFP sex to the list does not change anything. If you no see difference why did it upset you so much that I pointed it out? You either agree that contracepted genital intercourse is morally equivalent to all other sex acts OR you can claim that a statement of that fact is inflammatory. Not Both.

I would also like to add that I never once claimed to use NFP for any purpose other that to avoid getting my wife pregnant. In fact very early in the conversation I pointed out that two acts with same ends are not necessarily morally equivalent. Here p=7112710&postcount=212 is the post.
 
How is my statement inflammatory if you see no difference? Adding infertile NFP sex to the list does not change anything. If you no see difference why did it upset you so much that I pointed it out? You either agree that contracepted genital intercourse is morally equivalent to all other sex acts OR you can claim that a statement of that fact is inflammatory. Not Both.
Yes, you can claim both. You and I could do two different but morally equivalent acts. I could describe your act in an accurate and straightforward fashion, you could be technically accurate but completely obnoxious in your explanation of mine. I dont think you concentrate too hard on this information, it is easy to see how it can be true. What you just typed made no sense to our conversation.

All I am saying is your explanation for everyone else sex is pretty obnoxious. Accuracy does not play a roll in that.

And I will stop trying to find a situation where you would be in any way insulted. I understand that admitting you could be insulted is my way of proving a point that you can insult someone regardless of your intent. Another obvious fact I would imagine, but one I dont think I will get across. You are Yoda, apparently. Nothing upsets you.
 
Yes, you can claim both. You and I could do two different but morally equivalent acts. I could describe your act in an accurate and straightforward fashion, you could be technically accurate but completely obnoxious in your explanation of mine. I dont think you concentrate too hard on this information, it is easy to see how it can be true. What you just typed made no sense to our conversation.

All I am saying is your explanation for everyone else sex is pretty obnoxious. Accuracy does not play a roll in that.

And I will stop trying to find a situation where you would be in any way insulted. I understand that admitting you could be insulted is my way of proving a point that you can insult someone regardless of your intent. Another obvious fact I would imagine, but one I dont think I will get across. You are Yoda, apparently. Nothing upsets you.
So your only response to the whole discussion is that I am a meanie? I guess I can live with that. You know what I think? I think you expected to come onto this forum and “prove” that NFP proponents are just a tiny group of fanatics who do what the Pope tells them to. You could ask your “question” and then demonstrate how no one could explain how NFP is any different that ABC. What you got were many well reasoned responses from people who truly understand their faith and are willing to defend it. So when backed into a corner you claim that saying the truth is obnoxious. I once obstinately held on to views very similar to yours and it took an act of God to convert my heart. I hope you will experience the same.
 
Great post jilly4ski (#283).

The final nail in the coffin for the inanities concocted by PassingThru.
 
The Church will NEVER change her views on ABC. And any Catholic who is using ABC is sinning, needs to go to Confession, and atone.

This will not change. You can be as optimistic as you want but this will not change.
I have not read this whole tread but this caught my eye. I read a few days ago that Pope John Paul I was going to reverse the rules against ABC before he was murdered? I had no idea that was possible. If he had lived, could it be that we would be able to used ABC and it not be a mortal sin?
 
dailey
I read a few days ago that Pope John Paul I was going to reverse the rules against ABC before he was murdered? I had no idea that was possible. If he had lived, could it be that we would be able to used ABC and it not be a mortal sin?
Don’t believe everything you read – there are multitudinous kooks around.

Infallible teaching as in *Casti Connubii *and Humanae Vitae is irrevocable.
See:
subcreators.com/blog/2009/08/15/will-the-real-pope-john-paul-i-please-stand-up/
Pope John Paul I “fully supported and defended Pope Paul’s teaching.”
 
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