Why is Ecclesiasticus (Sirach) considered Apocrypha?

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Only after they broke away, and separated themselves from the Authority of the Pope. The fact of the matter is what gave Martin Luther the right to split from the church and decide what is inspired or not?
 
So are the deuterocanonicals inspired or not? according to your view?
While it is not for me to decide, my own opinion is we should look to the early Church, and value them consistent with how they have been valued throughout the history of the Church.
I myself take a stand similar to Cajetan that they are canon in that they are used liturgically and read for the instruction of the faithful.
They are , over all, inspiring if not inspired.
 
Of course I usually use Deuterocannon, but I have seen more people use the term Apocrypha
 
Only after they broke away, and separated themselves from the Authority of the Pope.
Just not true. Carthage, Hippo and Rome were local synods, never Claire ecumenical councils and not binding.
The fact of the matter is what gave Martin Luther the right to split from the church and decide what is inspired or not?
Off topic, but the excommunication has something to do with it, ISTM. And the canon was not the reason.
 
Acts 15. Councils. The first council in Jerusalem is why we do not have to be circumcised. The Orthodox split off and do not even agree among themselves as to the number of councils to accept. There were hundreds of writings purporting to be scripture. circulating all over the ancient world. Gnosticism and every manner of heretical writing mixed in with the inspired scrolls.

For this reason, the Church eventually got around to testing and re-testing and settled on documents that were trustworthy and small-o orthodox. It took hundreds of years to stamp out Gnosticism, Arianism, other minor heresies and once for all settle the New Testament canon.

Why so long?

Because the Church was not founded on scripture.
 
Acts 15. Councils. The first council in Jerusalem is why we do not have to be circumcised. The Orthodox split off and do not even agree among themselves as to the number of councils to accept. There were hundreds of writings purporting to be scripture. circulating all over the ancient world. Gnosticism and every manner of heretical writing mixed in with the inspired scrolls.

For this reason, the Church eventually got around to testing and re-testing and settled on documents that were trustworthy and small-o orthodox. It took hundreds of years to stamp out Gnosticism, Arianism, other minor heresies and once for all settle the New Testament canon.

Why so long?

Because the Church was not founded on scripture.
And yet your first reference in the post is scripture.
 
  1. It was binding because that was what was decided by the Pope. Nobody questioned/acted on it until they either split off or became heretical.
  2. How is that irrelevant in any way? He was the dude who started the Reformation. so what gave him the authority to make his own theology?
It seems that you don’t fully agree with the Lutheran Church if you are looking to the early Church. Because Lutherans accept the 66 books of the Protestant Bible. Yeah I know the first protestant bible had all 73…which begs the question, again, what gave him the authority to move the books? and declare them uninspired?

Side note: If you are implying that the council of Rome which DID decide the canon of the Bible, until the split with the Eastern Orthodox, was not binding I would ask why nobody opposed it. Because I think where this is coming from is the Dogmatic Statement at Trent which officially declared it, but that was only because nobody opposed it before then.
 
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Lol, I feel like this is a troll comment, how could it have been written about if i hadn’t happened yet?
 
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It was binding because that was what was decided by the Pope. Nobody questioned/acted on it until they either split off or became heretical.
Simply not so. These were not considered ecumenical councils. Their decisions not binding on the whole Church. You’re projecting a view of the pope backward.
How is that irrelevant in any way? He was the dude who started the Reformation. so what gave him the authority to make his own theology?
That’s a rhetorical question. The Evangelical Catholic (Lutheran) reformers believed their theology was apostolic and consistent with the Church Catholic. They state as much in the Augsburg Confession.
It seems that you don’t fully agree with the Lutheran Church if you are looking to the early Church. Because Lutherans accept the 66 books of the Protestant Bible.
Source. There is no codified canon in the Lutheran Confessions. It isn’t the way Lutheranism looks at the canon of scripture.
Yeah I know the first protestant bible had all 73…
  1. Luther’s translation includes the Prayer of Manasseh.
Side note: If you are implying that the council of Rome which DID decide the canon of the Bible, until the split with the Eastern Orthodox, was not binding I would ask why nobody opposed it.
People did. That’s why there are larger canons in the East, and AFAIK, not a significant condemnation from Rome
Because I think where this is coming from is the Dogmatic Statement at Trent which officially declared it, but that was only because nobody opposed it before then.
But they did. Catholics did. In the west, I minority view, to be sure. There was even opposition to the DC’s at Trent.
 
Ok, well if you’re not going to provide sufficient answers for why Martin Luther was God’s chosen instrument for fixing an “apostate” church you can believe that. But I think that’s putting a lot of trust in a man’s personal interpretation and personal authority. It still doesn’t agree with Christ when he said “you are Peter and on this rock I will build my Church, and the gates of Hell will not prevail against it.”

I’ll trust Jesus on this one.
 
Lol, I feel like this is a troll comment, how could it have been written about if i hadn’t happened yet?
That was his comment, not mine. My question is how do we know. We know because of scripture.
In discussions such as this, I’m always puzzled why some western traditions/communions / denominations will argue scripture only to the point of rejecting the ECFs and the early Church. Meanwhile, some Catholics respond by trying to minimize the importance of scripture.

On the canon, I believe Rome has a solid argument to defend the 73 book canon based on the historic record of the western Church. “Because the pope said so” isn’t the strong argument.
 
That’s illogical, it simply could not have been written if it didn’t happen yet.

None of the New Testament existed before Peter was chosen by Christ to be the 1st among equals. He made all the decisions when the choices got tough. That’s historical and true. Without the Pope there could not be a council to call and there would not be a Bible. Plain and simple.
 
Ok, well if you’re not going to provide sufficient answers for why Martin Luther was God’s chosen instrument for fixing an “apostate” church you can believe that.
A rhetorical comment filled with falsehoods. First, Luther never made the claim the Catholic Church was apostate. If you read that somewhere, it is a lie.
Second, I never made such an idiotic claim, so why would I provide “sufficient answers” for such?
But I think that’s putting a lot of trust in a man’s personal interpretation and personal authority. It still doesn’t agree with Christ when he said “you are Peter and on this rock I will build my Church, and the gates of Hell will not prevail against it.”
More polemics. Catholics have no exclusive claim on St. Peter, his confessions of faith, or Christ’s promise that His Church, of which I am a full member, will prevail.
 
Luke wrote it down and the Catholic Church preserved it. Luke did not teach that his writings were a sole rule.

Simple questions:

Q: Did Jesus found His Church on the bible?
  1. Yes.
  2. No.
Come on, you know this one.

Q2: Did Jesus teach that the Church would fail and need a European makeover?

A: (crickets)
 
None of the New Testament existed before Peter was chosen by Christ to be the 1st among equals.
Amen to first among equals. That is contradicted by universal jurisdiction.
He made all the decisions when the choices got tough.
Never alone. James was in charge in Acts. Paul chastised him in Galatians.
Without the Pope there could not be a council to call and there would not be a Bible. Plain and simple.
And without the others, the pope’s local councils only apply to those in communion with him.
 
Luke wrote it down and the Catholic Church preserved it. Luke did not teach that his writings were a sole rule.
So, it was written down and that’s how we know.
Did Jesus found His Church on the bible?
  1. Yes.
  2. No.
Come on, you know this one.
It is a false dichotomy. We have the Church founded by Christ at Pentecost. We have scripture because God knew we needed the written word. They are not separate.
How often did Christ say, “ it is written.”
Why did God write the Decalogue on tablets?
Q2: Did Jesus teach that the Church would fail and need a European makeover?

A: (crickets)
Rome is in Europe. Is that what you mean? It sounds like a question an Eastern Orthodox would ask.
Again, a false dichotomy.
Thomas Aquinas was from Europe.
 
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