Why is the Eastern Orthodox Church false?

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See what spindoctoring has done! Orthodox and Protestants say that the Church asserted one thing and neglect to mention that the Church also asserted another! Some say the foundation rock of the Church is Christ, while these and others say it is Peter’s faith. But let no one forget it is also said this applies to Peter in the most direct sense. Truly the Catholic Church is more inclusive than other churches, as befits her name. There are boundaries by culturre, but these are ultimatly irrelevant, as we are truly one, not many.
 
Gofer,

Do you care to mention what was spindoctored? I believe you are referring to where Jesus says to Peter that he is Peter and upon this rock I will build my Church. It certainly could be the actual person Peter and an apostolic succession based in Rome thence from, but it could just as well be referring to the faith and confession that Peter made, the true confession of who Jesus is. As well, it could be referring to all Bishops and not only Peter.

To be certain, the Bible does not tell us, “And there will be a Succession of Petrine Bishops, exclusive to Rome, whereof the Rock of the Church will be perpetually established.”

Thus, to base the argument on the Bible, is not possible. You must turn to history, which is what we have been discussing. If things were so simple as to say, “The Bible says it, I believe it!” Then I may as well remain Protestant.

God Bless,

John
 
Hey everyone,

Ignatios, Steve B, and tdgesq, interesting posts. I thought I might contribute a little.

I was checking out the New Advent, Catholic Encyclopedia, regarding Papal infallibility and Ecumenical Councils, to see just what the Catholic position was on these subjects. And I had a question.

The New Advent website states that regarding an Ecumenical council:

newadvent.org/cathen/07790a.htm

Okay, This is all fine and good, but the problem I see is that I do not see the value in an “ecumenical” council if this definition is true, other than perhaps to make other bishops feel like they are important (but in no way would they be, or at least I cannot see how).
As you know, individual bishops in the past have taught heresies. Some of these bishops attended various councils. You wouldn’t want these bishops making decisions on faith and morals for you correct?

No pope has ever taught heresy.
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John:
Suppose 1000 Bishops were called to an ecumenical council, 50 actually came, and only 2 agreed with the Pope. By the definition above this would still be an “ecumencial” council and the Pope’s side would win. I honestly cannot see the difference between this and the Pope’s speaking “ex cathedra”. I also see very little point in having an ecumenical council with the above definition, it seems much more efficient to simply have the Pope speak ex cathedra to decide manners of doctrine.

What is your thoughts on this?
John,

Has anything like that ever happened?

As the Church uses the term infallibility, it applies only in connection with doctrinal authority.

Under the section you mention, (ecumenical councils) it says ecumenical councils are organs of infallibility, and describes the role the pope plays in ecumenical councils.

I. True Meaning of Infallibility
II. Proof of the Church’s Infallibility
III. Organs of Infallibility
 
but to comment on whether the Popes accepted or not let us look again at the Second Ecumenical Council,third canon and see whether the Popes accepted that or not.

third Canon: Let the Bishop of Constantinople, however, have the priorities of honor after the Bishop of Rome, because of its being New Rome.
As far as I know from records and documents from both sides Orthodox and Catholic that there is no issues with this canon and both accepted it and signed to it.
  • the bishop of Constantinople is to enjoy the privileges of honour after the bishop of Rome.
    This does NOT translate to 1st among equals, (as in authority) which has been what I have been saying, going back to post #127.
Cardinal Ratzinger (now Benedict XVI) wrote
:
:
  1. In Christian literature, the expression begins to be used in the East when, from the fifth century, the idea of the *Pentarchy *gained ground, according to which there are five Patriarchs at the head of the Church, with the Church of Rome having the first place among these patriarchal sister Churches. In this connection, however, it needs to be noted that no Roman Pontiff ever recognized this equalization of the sees or accepted that only a primacy of honour be accorded to the See of Rome.It should be noted too thatthis patriarchal structure typical of the East never developed in the West.
  2. The expression appears again in two letters of the Metropolitan Nicetas of Nicodemia (in the year 1136) and the Patriarch John X Camaterus (in office from 1198 to 1206), in which they protested that Rome, by presenting herself as *mother and teacher, *would annul their authority.In their view, Rome is only the first among sisters of equal dignity.
vatican.va/roman_curia/co…orelle_en.html
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Ignatios:
The Council of Carthage was a Local council, yes, you are right on this one.
However this very council was held because "…Stephen I, bishop of Rome, attempted to exert authority over other churches on the basis of succession from Peter.
Can you be more specific?
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Ignatios:
He attempted by letters to overrule the decision of a council of African bishops concerning the baptism of heretics.

In response, the Africans held a larger council of 87 bishops which upheld the previous council and rejected Stephen’s decrees. This was the Seventh Council of Carthage in 258."
So you assumed that Cyprian told that to the bishops “at that council” then you gave an opinion based on a wrong assumption. So what Cyprian said it was directed to the Bishop of Rome.
Please you must read before you answer.
"The matter was allowed to drop after the death of pope Stephen (2 August, 257). Africans and Romans preserved their respective practices till the fourth century, when the former, at the Synod of Arles (314), agreed to conform to the Roman custom (Hefele, Hist. Of the Councils, I, 188). Cypran died a martyr in the persecution of Valerian, September, 258. " [new advent]

Therefore, pope Stephen’s position prevailed.
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Ignatios:
Wrong…I am an Antiochian from the Antiochian land itself and If my Patriarch got up one day and said that he is the Head of the Church, be sure I would fly there the next day and I can also assure you that there would be a million faithfull like myself pulling him down the streets by his beard, shouting ANAXIOS=not worthy, for CHRIST alone is the Head of the Church just as our father Saint Ignatius said to the Romans, and I can also assure you that we wont accept any bishop Patriarch or a pope over our Patriarch except CHRIST. Also the Holy See of Antioch “THE FIRST THRONE OF PETER” has all the elements to make claims rightfully to “THE Successor of Peter” but we dont simply because it is wrong to seek headship over the whole CHURCH which is belong only to CHRIST as the Bible said.
Ignatios,

I can see now why the Orthodox lost the East.
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Ignatios:
steve I dont mean any insult, but you need to do some extensive study on those matters before you get into them. It seems that your knoweldge in these matters is not sufficient enough to carry you through.

He didnt only say “Rome presides” this what they call quoting things out of context, If he did then maybe you somewhat have a debatable case, here is what he said…" the Church which presides in the place of the region of the Romans".
It is abvious, he confined the presidency of Rome to the “Region of the Romans”.
1st you argue that authority for a Church is based on the capital city. Well, Rome at the time of Clement, Ignatius, Polycarp, and Irenaeus is the capital of the Roman empire which stretches from England east to Egypt accross N Africa.

Now you want to argue that the Church of Rome is just the vicinity of Rome?
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Ignatios:
I really wonder why is presidency is sooo important to you?
:doh2:
 
steve b:
the bishop of Constantinople is to enjoy the privileges of honour after the bishop of Rome.
This does NOT translate to 1st among equals, (as in authority) which has been what I have been saying, going back to post #127.
It is the same thing, only worded in a diffrent way
1st-among-equals or Priority of honor, if they were to speak (the bishops) since they cant all speak at the same time, they chose the Pope to speak (1st) and then the Bishop of Constantinople and so forth, if they were to sign their signatures since they cant put their signatures on top of eachother’s, they said let the Pope have the priority of Honor or be the" first one of among us"to sign…and since they are all equals in Authority(each over his See) as the sixth Canon of the First E.C. clearly shows, but yet one has to be" the first among them" they chose the Pope.
dont mind me asking you steve is your native language the English?
Cardinal Ratzinger (now Benedict XVI) wrote
Quote:
3. In Christian literature, the expression begins to be used in the East when, from the fifth century, the idea of the Pentarchy gained ground, according to which there are five ***Patriarchs at the head of the Church, with the Church of Rome having ***the first place among ******these patriarchal sister Churches. In this connection, however, it needs to be noted that no ***Roman Pontiff ever recognized this equalization of the sees ***or accepted that only a primacy of honour be accorded to the See of Rome.It should be noted too thatthis patriarchal structure typical of the East never developed in the West.
  1. The expression appears again in two letters of the Metropolitan Nicetas of Nicodemia (in the year 1136) and the Patriarch John X Camaterus (in office from 1198 to 1206), in which they protested that Rome, by presenting herself as mother and teacher, would annul their authority.In their view, Rome is only the first among sisters of equal dignity.
steve b:
the bishop of Constantinople is to enjoy the privileges of honour after the bishop of Rome.
This does NOT translate to 1st among equals,
Again if you read your Pope quote you wouldnt be saying “this does NOT …” and I marked the words which they show “1st among equals” is interchangeable with" priority of honor", so in another word whether you put down “1st…” or “Priority…” it is the same thing.
…it needs to be noted that no Roman Pontiff ever recognized this equalization of the sees or accepted that only a primacy of honour be accorded to the See of Rome…
If the Popes signed and accepted the 2nd E.C. then your Pope Benedict is wrong " fallible" or the least to say on the following issues “…accepted that only a Primacy of honor be accorded to the See of Rome” show me from the 2nd E.C. where the Pope or his legates or any western church Present at that council rejected that not only primacy of Honor should be accorded to the See of Rome …they signed in to it(the Council) without any objection unlike the 4th E.C. where Leo rejected the 28th canon but nevertheless the rest of the Church signed in to the 28th C. and they passed it dispite Leo objection to it.
steve b:
“quoted by steve earlier”
The council of Carthage is a local council. And Cyprian is correct, no bishop “at that council” can
judge another bishop
Quote:
Originally Posted by Ignatios
The Council of Carthage was a Local council, yes, you are right on this one.
However this very council was held because "…Stephen I, bishop of Rome, attempted to exert authority over other churches on the basis of succession from Peter.
Can you be more specific?
that Council was held not to tell other bishops of " that council" as you stated above …that Council was held speciffically to respond to the Pope of Rome Stephen I, in which he(Cyprian) said that “…None of us setteth himself up as a Bishop of Bishops, or by tyrannical terror forces his colleagues to a necessity of obeying, inasmuch as every bishop, in the free use of his liberty and power…” so those words were directed to the bishop of Rome and not to the "…bishop of that Council " again as you stated above.
 
…Continued
"The matter was allowed to drop after the death of pope Stephen (2 August, 257). Africans and Romans preserved their respective practices till the fourth century, when the former, at the Synod of Arles (314), agreed to conform to the Roman custom (Hefele, Hist. Of the Councils, I, 188). Cypran died a martyr in the persecution of Valerian, September, 258. " [new advent]
Therefore, pope Stephen’s position prevailed.
I will not get into this with you since your info is poor on history,(No offence, I am going by what I read from your posts) since there is so much history into this then what you have posted above I will answer to you breifly answer breifly.
The matter didnt not allowed to be drop what happened is simply each preserved what he had believed is right. so the Romans maintaned theirs and the Africans maintaned theirs.
if it is that they comformed to the Roman customs show me where and How, show documents , I amnot interested in opinion to replace a fact or claim.
Again show me where and how Pope Stephen’s position prevailed, I hope you search for this from both sides and not only from the “new advent” site, to tell you the truth I think you are mixing 2 stories together.
but just to give an idea what you are going to be up against I am giving those 2 Canons:
The Ecclesiastical Canons of the Same Holy Apostles.
newadvent.org/fathers/07158.htm
46. We command that a bishop, or presbyter, or deacon who receives the baptism, or the sacrifice of heretics, be deprived: “For what agreement is there between Christ and Belial? or what part has a believer with an infidel?”
47. If a bishop or presbyter rebaptizes him who has had true baptism, or does not baptize him who is polluted by the ungodly, let him be deprived, as ridiculing the cross and the death of the Lord, and not distinguishing between real priests and counterfeit ones.
steve b:
Quote:
Originally Posted by Ignatios

Wrong…I am an Antiochian from the Antiochian land itself and If my Patriarch got up one day and said that he is the Head of the Church, be sure I would fly there the next day and I can also assure you that there would be a million faithfull like myself pulling him down the streets by his beard, shouting ANAXIOS=not worthy, for CHRIST alone is the Head of the Church just as our father Saint Ignatius said to the Romans, and I can also assure you that we wont accept any bishop Patriarch or a pope over our Patriarch except CHRIST. Also the Holy See of Antioch “THE FIRST THRONE OF PETER” has all the elements to make claims rightfully to “THE Successor of Peter” but we dont simply because it is wrong to seek headship over the whole CHURCH which is belong only to CHRIST as the Bible said.

Ignatios,

I can see now why the Orthodox lost the East.
Steve

I can see why the Roman Catholic church lost their faith, for loosing a land or country or a church building or any worldly thing is not of value to us, but loosing the faith that it was handed down to us from the Apostles is what count, for Orthodoxy is not of this world but of GOD and we strive to gain the Kingdom that it is not on this earth, we would loose many yet and many would fall off and Satan will even try to deceive even the elect if he can( in which we see that he prevailed only with some) as that was fortold to us in the Bible and in the Life of the Church. steve, the Holy Church of GOD is not about land nor presidency nor winning anything accept being on the side of GOD
Now you want to argue that the Church of Rome is just the vicinity of Rome?
as long as it is mentioned as such in the history however there is nothing to argue about this it is a written facts which it is called history… Again please read the text, I keep telling you this :rolleyes:

read this below and I will mark things for you in red so you can see them, okaaaaaaaaaay??? by the way if you ever read history you will find out that so an so presided over the Church sos and so of so and so, I just gave you one example.
:
Originally Posted by Ignatios
and let me throw one more thing from history to you but remmeber that there is a lot more then this to refute your claims from history, Eusebius, Church History (Book III) Chapter 36. Ignatius and His Epistles."…10. These things he wrote from the above-mentioned city to the churches referred to. And when he had left Smyrna he wrote again from Troas to the Philadelphians and to the church of Smyrna; ***and particularly to Polycarp, who presided ***
over the latter church. And since he knew him well as an apostolic man, he commended to him, like a true and good shepherd, the flock at Antioch, and besought him to care diligently for it. "…hhhmmm wasnt that suppose to be the role of the bishop of Rome , if he existed or at least if he had supremacy as the RCC claims today??? I have to go now I will answer the rest later on maybe after our Pascha=Passover(Easter) is Over
 
Others have compared the papacy to a seed that grows into a tree. The bare essentials were there from the beginning (Peter leads the flock.) but the specifics took time to develop. …In josephdaniels’ words, the keys mean “the ability to forgive sins and celebrate the Eucharist” for the Orthodox. Now all priests hold these powers. Yet only the Pope can declare teachings to be infallible and have a certain jurisdiction over others which other bishops don’t have. My position is - Peter alone receives something the others did not have, which is later defined as (part of) the powers symbolized by the keys and exercised by his chief representative (the bishop of Rome). And this is perfectly valid, since the church is the foundation of truth.

Isa has previously said the Fathers “rarely mentioned the idea of authority and jurisdiction” regarding the keys and binding and loosing. But I replied, so they did. Therefore precedent is present. The belief was there, and it grew to be the main (?) understanding.

Now, all this boils down to authority, since the Orthodox apparently don’t believe doctrine can develop validly past a certain date while Catholics do.
 
Anthony:
  1. My point: contrary to Bonocore’s ridiculous statement re: “six centuries” passing before we have any rejection of canon 28, we see it was completely ignored by Illyria, Justinian, and Trullo, along with Rome’s tacit acceptance by giving Constantinople second place in 869 and 879. In short, despite Leo’s grand papal claims, even he himself admits his inability to get the Church to listen when he speaks. The point stands.
In the article I provided in post 224,Mark Bonocore acknowledged that certain parties tried to resucitate canon 28:

< And while it is true that, in Constantinople itself, certain parties “dusted off” Canon 28 from time to time and tried to use it when it suited them, for the next 6 centuries, all Eastern churches do not acknowledge the canon as part of Chalcedon --the 28th Canon being rendered null and void by Rome’s condemnation. This is supported by all the Greek historians, such as Theodore the Lector (writing in 551 A.D.), John Skolastikas (writing in 550 A.D.), Dionysius Exegius (also around 550 A.D.); and by Roman Popes like Pope St. Gelasius (c. 495) and Pope Symmachus (c. 500). One wonders why Schaff fails to mention these? >

As I suggested in post 224,Justinian was inclined toward Monophysitism,and he had a vested political intrest in having a theological consensus among the Eastern bishops. He was not much interested in remaining true to the orthodox faith,and so to him the ecclesiastical authority that the pope wielded in the East would have been a foreign intrusion into Byzantine affairs,just as the ecclesiastical authority of the pope is still resented by people who value national autonomy rather than orthodoxy and communion. The council of Trullo was obviously motivated by Byzantine prejudices and a desire for ecclesiastical independence from Rome. As for the Illyrian bishops,they tended to side with Constantinople. But for what reasons? Did they think that Constantinople was more orthodox than Rome? Are the instances of bishops defying Leo’s papal authority proof that Leo’s claims of Petrine primacy and universal jurisdiction were wrong? Leo is considered a saint by the Eastern churches. How could he be right in his defense of the orthodox faith and in ecclesiastical authority in the East,and yet be wrong in his claims to Petrine primacy and universal jurisdiction?
 
Quick-like, since you were kind enough to be brief:
As I suggested in post 224,Justinian was inclined toward Monophysitism,and he had a vested political intrest in having a theological consensus among the Eastern bishops. He was not much interested in remaining true to the orthodox faith,and so to him the ecclesiastical authority that the pope wielded in the East would have been a foreign intrusion into Byzantine affairs,just as the ecclesiastical authority of the pope is still resented by people who value national autonomy rather than orthodoxy and communion.
This is historically inaccurate, and fairly offensive, given that Justinian is venerated as a saint in the Orthodox and Eastern Catholic churches. Justinian was doctrinally strongly orthodox, and, while generally one of the more religiously tolerant emperors, actually was fairly ruthless toward the Syrian and Egyptian monophysites. Theological consensus was, of course, important to him, just as it remains important to all the ancient Christian communions. There is no evidence he felt snitty about the pope and wanted to thumb his nose thereat, as you implicitly suggest; in fact, Justinian was generally rather supportive of the papacy, to the occasional chagrin of more nationalistic Eastern bishops.
The council of Trullo was obviously motivated by Byzantine prejudices and a desire for ecclesiastical independence from Rome.
Certainly Trullo was extremely pro-Eastern Rite, but I think it begs to question to say the Trullan bishops sought ecclesiastical independence from Rome. Historically speaking, they’d never really paid heed to Rome’s bluster in the first place.
As for the Illyrian bishops,they tended to side with Constantinople. But for what reasons? Did they think that Constantinople was more orthodox than Rome? Are the instances of bishops defying Leo’s papal authority proof that Leo’s claims of Petrine primacy and universal jurisdiction were wrong?
It certainly doesn’t make Leo’s case for him. :rolleyes: If papal supremacy were an understood dogma of the early Church, one would expect pious and right-believing bishops to, oh, I dunno, not ignore the Pope’s pontifications more often than not, don’t’cha think?

If papal supremacy is true, why do we find pre-Schism popes having so much harder a time exercising it than post-Schism popes? The cold historical facts would seem to more suggest the Orthodox view, that the papacy often made grandiose claims, but these claims, while perhaps not ranted at out of respect for Rome’s great track record of Orthodoxy, were simply ignored as being innovative customs and therefore neither binding nor authoritative.
Leo is considered a saint by the Eastern churches. How could he be right in his defense of the orthodox faith in the East,and yet be wrong in his claims to Petrine primacy and universal jurisdiction?
False dilemma, and a highly disingenuous one at that. You know as well as I do that the saints were often quite human, even on certain doctrinal matters.

Basil the Great and Gregory of Nyssa are both saints, considered theologians of immense importance. How could they be right in their many expositions of the orthodox faith, and yet be wrong on a basic soteriological issue like whether or not any eternal punishment exists for sinners? (Both taught Christian universalism, or the doctrine that hell is not eternal and that all men will eventually inherit Paradise.)

Photius the Great is considered a saint by the Eastern Catholics. How could he be venerated as a beacon of holiness, and yet be so vehemently opposed to papal supremacy and the filioque?

Irenaeus of Lyon is considered a saint in all churches. How could he be right in his defense of the orthodox faith against the Gnostics, and yet be so wrong on, e.g., as simple a fact as Christ’s age?

The point, of course, is that Leo’s superior Christology and pious life don’t automatically make him right on every theological opinion he expresses, or power grab he makes. 😉

(Am following this thread, really am. Just have very little spare time with finals and all.)
 
In the article I provided in post 224,Mark Bonocore acknowledged that certain parties tried to resucitate canon 28:

< And while it is true that, in Constantinople itself, certain parties “dusted off” Canon 28 from time to time and tried to use it when it suited them, for the next 6 centuries, all Eastern churches do not acknowledge the canon as part of Chalcedon --the 28th Canon being rendered null and void by Rome’s condemnation. This is supported by all the Greek historians, such as Theodore the Lector (writing in 551 A.D.), John Skolastikas (writing in 550 A.D.), Dionysius Exegius (also around 550 A.D.); and by Roman Popes like Pope St. Gelasius (c. 495) and Pope Symmachus (c. 500). One wonders why Schaff fails to mention these? >

As I suggested in post 224,Justinian was inclined toward Monophysitism,and he had a vested political intrest in having a theological consensus among the Eastern bishops. He was not much interested in remaining true to the orthodox faith,and so to him the ecclesiastical authority that the pope wielded in the East would have been a foreign intrusion into Byzantine affairs,just as the ecclesiastical authority of the pope is still resented by people who value national autonomy rather than orthodoxy and communion. The council of Trullo was obviously motivated by Byzantine prejudices and a desire for ecclesiastical independence from Rome. As for the Illyrian bishops,they tended to side with Constantinople. But for what reasons? Did they think that Constantinople was more orthodox than Rome? Are the instances of bishops defying Leo’s papal authority proof that Leo’s claims of Petrine primacy and universal jurisdiction were wrong? Leo is considered a saint by the Eastern churches. How could he be right in his defense of the orthodox faith and in ecclesiastical authority in the East,and yet be wrong in his claims to Petrine primacy and universal jurisdiction?
The primacy rests on the Biblical testimony , which tells us that Peter is the apostle who was the most outstanding, and authoritative of the Twelve, and on the fact of his martyrdom in the Capital of the Enpire, and to the great prestige of the Church of Rome owing to the shrines of Peter and Paul in Rome. The letter of St. Clement shows us that the Church of Rome acted authoritatively in a dispute in the East. Irenaeus gives us a list of successors to Peter. That said, do we have to think of Peter
as a pope like Pope Damasus, playing the role of Pontifex Maximus? Peter was a humble man. He was likely succeeded by humble men who did not rule but taught what had been handed down to them, and acquired a reputation of fidelity to the Truth, but intervening only when asked to intervene, The role grew, as time went on, by what onlookers would think of as historical accident, bud inevitably among the bishops of the Church, the bishop of Rome would out, because of his association with Peter and because he was in Rome, the capital of the world,
 
Pons,
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Pons:
Now, all this boils down to authority, since the Orthodox apparently don’t believe doctrine can develop validly past a certain date while Catholics do.
You are partially correct, your depiction of the Catholic Church as being like a seed is interesting, but you are right that the Orthodox don’t see it as such. I think (Orthodox correct me if I am wrong) that the Orthodox view the Church as the “guardian” of the true faith, and that the purpose of ecumenical councils etc. is to simply clarify the faith that always existed. Thus when we say that God is three persons in one, we are not developing the faith, rather we are clarifying.

In the case of the RCC, we see certain “developments” of doctrine, which appear to be completely new, or somewhat different than previous thought. Purgatory, indulgences, and possibly Papal Infallibility are areas where the doctrine did change (not to say that it is wrong). I do not know that we ever see any early pre-schism Church Father talking about the Pope’s speaking “ex cathedra” as being infallible.

Thanks for contributing and God Bless!

Steve B,

Hey Steve,
Steve B:
As you know, individual bishops in the past have taught heresies. Some of these bishops attended various councils. You wouldn’t want these bishops making decisions on faith and morals for you correct?

No pope has ever taught heresy.
My beef was with the definition provided of an “ecumenical council” I didn’t mean to say that other Bishops should have the right to define doctrine, I only find it difficult to understand how the RCC view of an ecumenical council is at all practical.
Steve B:
John,

Has anything like that ever happened?

As the Church uses the term infallibility, it applies only in connection with doctrinal authority.

Under the section you mention, (ecumenical councils) it says ecumenical councils are organs of infallibility, and describes the role the pope plays in ecumenical councils.
It is not important as to whether anything like that has ever happened, it is only important that it could happen. You didn’t deny what I wrote though. I understand full-well that the Church applies infallibility only in connection with doctrine. My problem is that the organ of infallibility named ecumenical council, does not at all appear to be purposeful.

Suppose I and my brothers decide to have a club, where we regularly hold meetings to define club ettiquette and rules. I am declared President and we hold that at these meetings the rules will be binding. Also, we say that due to my Presidency, only I am allowed to call meetings, and only rules that I affirm are acceptable. Furthermore, even if the majority votes against me, my side still wins. A final point, is that even if I do not call a meeting, I can at will define rules, so long as I am speaking from my office, and they are equally binding to any rules defined in the meeting.

This is essentially what the New Advent website said, and I take it on faith that it represents actual Catholic perspective of ecumenical councils/infallibility. My question is, if my assertion is true (please correct me if I am wrong, and explain how), then it seems that ecumenical councils are at best a means of making the other members feel important, and at worst a complete waste of time.

Thanks for posting, and God Bless!

John
 
  1. Could you provide primary source documentation that the papacy authoritatively refused to ratify the Seventh Ecumenical Council’s incorporation of the Trullan Canons? I can’t seem to find any definitive statements. Note the call of the question. I know Rome rejected Trullo. I want to know if and how Rome rejected Nicea II’s incorporation of Trullo (since, as we know, under Rome a council may be ratified as ecumenical ex post, e.g. Constantinople I).
Rome didn’t reject Trullo’s statements regarding the faith.
It was Tarasius,patriarch of Constantinople,who brought up the council of Trullo at Nicaea 2. Regarding him,Pope Hadrian wrote to the Emporer in a letter that was sent to the council:

“…We greatly wondered that in your imperial commands, directed for the Patriarch of the royal city, Tarasius, we find him there called Universal: but we know not whether this was written through ignorance or schism, or the heresy of the wicked. But henceforth we advise your most merciful and imperial majesty, that he be by no means called Universal in your writings, because it appears to be contrary to the institutions of the holy Canons and the decrees of the traditions of the holy Fathers. For he never could have ranked second, save for the authority of our holy Catholic and Apostolic Church, as is plain to all. Because if he be named Universal, above the holy Roman Church which has a prior rank, which is the head of all the Churches of God, it is certain that he shews himself as a rebel against the holy Councils, and a heretic. For, if he is Universal, he is recognized to have the Primacy even over the Church of our See, which appears ridiculous to all faithful Christians: because in the whole world the chief rank and power was given to the blessed Apostle Peter by the Redeemer of the world himself; and through the same Apostle, whose place we unworthily hold, the holy Catholic and Apostolic Roman Church holds the first rank, and the authority of power, now and for ever, so that if any one, which we believe not, has called him, or assents to his being called Universal, let him know that he is estranged from the orthodox Faith, and a rebel against our holy Catholic and Apostolic Church.”
 
…huh??? :confused:

Trullo isn’t even mentioned in Hadrian’s letter. In addition, not one of the Trullan Canons even gives Constantinople the title of “Ecumenical Patriarch.” Your citation is a classic example of the red herring fallacy. Smoke and mirrors don’t help your position in the debate.

It is acknowledged that the Seventh Ecumenical Council ratified the Trullan Canons, heralding them as belonging to the Fifth and Sixth Ecumenical Councils (hence the Orthodox name “Quinsext” for the Council of Trullo). Among these canons is one confirming Constantinople’s second rank among the churches, citing Chalcedon canon 28.

Even under a Catholic view of authority, if Rome signed off on the Seventh Ecumenical Council, then Rome signed off on its ratification of the Trullan Canons, unless the Pope specifically used his much-ballyhooed “line item veto” power to excise them from the binding authority of the Seventh Council. Do you have any historical documentation that the Pope did so? If not, is this not a gaping and contradictory hole in the Catholic schema of authority?
 
  1. How can we know that a Pope is valid, or legitimate, as has been said earlier. Are there not cases where a Pope declares a Pope from many years earlier anti-Pope? Supposing, I say that I would like to become a Catholic, but I believe the current Pope Benedict is an anti-Pope (I really don’t though), how could you assure me that he is indeed not an anti-Pope? (Note: it is not right to accuse the Orthodox side of having the same problem, as it means little if one Patriarch was an anti-Patriarch, given that he is neither the Supreme Head, nor infallible)
  2. Related to question (2), if you answer that it is by the witness of the Vatican or Church Body, then does this not defeat the purpose of a single head which determines truth?
No,because it is not a decision upon doctrines of faith or morals. The popes are elected by bishops gathered in conclave anyway.
  1. If the truth is guarded and protected, and to a large extent dictated (in a good way if the RCC is true) by the Bishop of Rome, then why are “Ecumenical” councils necessary? The word ecumenical means the whole, so it would only follow that it’s ecumenical nature comes from its representation of the whole Church.
Councils are necessary to get a concensus among bishops.
They are not necessary for a pope to pronounce a doctrine as binding throughout the whole Church.
 
So I was reading some ECF stuff and ran across this, couldn’t hardly believe my eyes at first. Sorry if It’s already been posted.

St. Cyprian of Carthage 251A.D.

"The Lord says to Peter: ‘I say to you,’ He says, ‘that you are Peter, and upon this rock I will build my Church, and the gates of hell will not overcome it. And to you I will give the keys of the kingdom of heaven: and whatever things you bind on earth shall be bound also in heaven: and whatever things you bind on earth shall be bound also in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth, they shall be loosed also in heaven.’ And again He says to him after His resurrection: "Feed my sheep.’ On him He builds the Church, and to him He gives the command to feed the sheep; and although He assigns a like power to all the Apostles, yet He founded a single chair, and He established by His own authority a source and an intrinsic reason for that unity. Indeed, the others were that also which Peter was; but a primacy is given to Peter, whereby it is made clear that there is but on Church and one chair. So too, all are shepherds, and the flock is shown to be one, fed by all the Apostles in single-minded accord. If someone does not hold fast to this unity of Peter, can he imagine that he still holds the faith? If he desert the chair of Peter upon whom the Church was built, can he still be confident that he is in the Church?

Cool huh?👍
 
by the way, I’ve not done much research on the Eastern Orthodox Church, just thought that was an interesting quote.
 
It’s a very cool quote indeed, though not, I suspect, for the reasons you’d think at first blush. In broader context, Cyprian is not talking about the papacy, but rather the unity of the monarchial episcopate. According to Cyprian, each bishop holds the fullness of the Chair of Peter, and thus the headship and primacy of his diocese. Peter is a type of the unity and catholicity of the Faith. Cyprian goes on immediately to say,

The episcopate is one, of which each bishop holds his part within the undivided structure. The Church also is one… it is one light that is spread everywhere, and the unity of her structure is undivided.

In his revised edition, Cyprian further clarifies:

Most especially must we bishops, who exercise authority in the Church, hold firmly and insist upon this unity, whereby we may demonstrate also that the episcopate itself is one and undivided.

I’m sure, Brady, as a Roman Catholic your immediate inclination is to equate all references to “Peter” or “Chair of Peter” with “the papacy.” This is an understandable reaction on your part; however, this equivalency is often simply not the case in patristic literature, and as such it’s vitally important to carefully examine the context and meaning before prooftexting with it.

I assume, by the quote and your rather excited/pleased reaction thereunto, in context of this thread, that you intended it to bolster a pro-papacy position. Forgive me if I misread you.
 
No, I agree with much of what you said. I have much respect for the Orthodox, and really like your liturgy.

I think he undeniably defers much respect to Rome, more than he does to other Churches. The whole context which that excerpt came from was on unity of the Church. Cyprian as I’m sure you know was very big on that. When I read the ECF I see everyone looking to Rome. Maybe not as pronounced as what is seen in the RCC today, but its there.

With that in mind, what troubles me is why the Orthodox almost seemed determined not to reunite with us. Pope John Paul II bent over backwards with this goal in mind. He declared that he was ready to dialogue with other Christians to work out another way of exercising the primacy of the Bishop of Rome so that it could be a cause of unity rather than continue to be a cause of division.

We’d both be better off together. We are busy fighting this stupid civil war, and while were at it, secularism, relativism, and modernism are taking over.
 
also, another reason I posted that quote is because I’ve heard some trying to spin Matt. 16:18 off as Jesus referring to Peter’s faith and things of that sort, clearly that is not what Cyprian thinks.
 
what is your take on this letter…

St. Leo I 446 A.D

“If in your view, in regard to a matter to be handled and decided jointly with your brothers, their decision was other than you wanted, then let the entire matter, with a record of the proceedings, be referred to us…Although bishops have a common dignity, they are not all of the same rank. Even among the most blessed Apostles, though they were like in honor, there was a certain distinction of power. All were equal in being chosen, but it was given to one to be preeminent over the others. From this formaility there arose also a distinction among bishops, and by a great arrangement it was provided that no one should arrogate everything to himself, but individual provinces there should be individual bishops whose opinion among their brothers should be first; and again, certain others, established in larger cities, were to accept a greater responsibility. Through them the care of the universal Church would converge in the one See of Peter, and nothing should ever be at odds with this head.”
 
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