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IggyAntiochus
Guest
I agree. God did have a method through which His revelation was given to mankind. With the Old Testament, it was the nation of Israel, with the New the church. If, in the first instance it did not require the Israelites to be infallible to recognize God’s voice in the Scriptures, then it does not require it in the second instance. There is never any doubt on the part of Jesus or the apostles that the people know that they possess Scripture. Jesus expects the Jews He encounters to know and obey them without an infallible magisterium to confer certainty to the people.No, That is not what i was trying to say. What I was getting at was, God had set up this modus operandi to compile scriptures over the ages, there were many apocryphal writings in Judaism as well.
Sure, its plausible. My only point is that, while plausible, the Catholic is no better position when it comes to infallible certainty than the Protestant is.I’m not saying the Jewish authorities were infallible, I’m trying to make the point that we each accept things that are handed down and cannot Infallibly know anything, but we can see a mosaic, and in that we can recognize infallibility. With the information we have in this present reality, in light of the Word of God we have received is it not plausible that an Infallible, Omniscient, God would complete the past ordained governing body infallibly?
The Roman Catholic examines the Scriptures and history, and makes the judgment that the Roman Catholic teaching of infallibility, etc, best represents the Christian faith and submits to its claims, That is, the Catholic interprets the evidence and makes a fallible decision. The Protestant examines the Scriptures and history, and makes the judgment that Scripture is the final authority for faith and life and does, as best as he is able, to submit to it. This is also a fallible interpretive decision. Both parties have the same level of fallible certainty about their infallible authorities. It is disingenuous to suggest that the Catholic is in a more certain position, because his position is still based on his fallible decision.
The understanding that the Scriptures are infallible and that we have the correct collection of them is not based on the level of our certainty. It is based on the Person of God Himself; if God is infallible, then anything He does is also infallible. Since it was God’s purpose to give His revelation to His church, we hold that He was successful in doing so. It does not require any authority on the part of the church recognizing His voice in order for Him to have been successful in attaining the goal. The necessity of the church to be infallible is superfluous. Again, if God was successful in giving His Scriptures to His people before the church without the Levitical priesthood being infallible, and the Jews to have recognized it, then the same is true for us.I don’t believe one must be infallible to recognize infallibility, at least in regards to scripture. I think they are an infallible collection of books. I also think that if you have an infallible collection of books, it would logically lead to having them infallibly compiled by an infallible source, the Holy Spirit, delivering them through an infallible council, the Catholic Church. Otherwise if they are only a fallible collection of infallible books then why should I believe the books are infallible if the modus operandi of there discerning was fallible?