S
sambos671
Guest
So, since no one can define definiatively what Paul specifically meant by certain traditions we can say there is no validity to tradition as the Catholic church understands it? Is that your point? I find it a strange point to make when we compate Pauls writing against discord in Corinth or the emphasis on following those placed in charge of the churches. We can see only 35 - 40 years later, Clement’s letter to Corinth about several of the same issues Paul regarded primarily to stop the in fighting and to follow the lead of the appointed bishops of that church. Certainly we know the world in which these letters were writen in was primarily illiterate. Only the educated could both read and write so the role of bishop and descent become of primary importance to the early church as can be easily seen in study of early church history. Tradition then are the generally accepted beliefs as passed down to the bishops from their predessors. I would have to assume format of liturgical type worship which we see in the Didache and Jewish practice of the day would be included in this since its not spelled out in scripture. However, I would say its not exclusive to this. There is by necessity a built in reliance of the Church and its teaching.You only see it as excellent because of your bias.
2Thess2:15 is simply not a good proof text for catholic apologetics. It might hold some weight if you knew what Paul meant by “tradition”.
I haven’t been able to work my way through all of your posts but I have yet to see anywhere your church lists what Paul meant.
Arandur is certainly correct in saying that I am asking a gotcha question but it’s only mean to show you the weakness of using that verse as a prooftext.