What about Josephite marriages? They don’t procreate.
Very good point - people keep forgetting in this thread the key factor that unity and procreation are the primary ends of
the conjugal act specifically - the ends of marriage are broader. This is key to why NFP is not considered contraceptive - it doesn’t affect the conjugal act.
If a couple is using NFP to avoid pregnancy, the thing that actually prevents pregnancy is the periodic abstinence they choose to undergo, and no one objects to that.
Everyone should take a second look at the Casti Connubii quote in post #38 - the pope never even uses the
word “marriage” but refers to the “begetting of children” as the primary purpose of “
the conjugal act.” (Obviously, Catholic teaching does however mandate that the conjugal act is morally permissible only within marriage)
Look, I agree with you that NFP does not alter the sexual act. But when I did my ethics course there are different ways in which you judge a sin. This is accepted by the Church by the way and is Catholic dogma.
The aspects of moral theology to which you’re referring are indeed matters of dogma. That said, no offense, but you’re making all kinds of errors here. You’re making elementary mistakes which include even sloppy terminology! Let me help you:
Intention, act itself (ie. sex or contraception), consequence and purpose.
You mention four sources of the moral act:
Intention
“Act itself”
“Consequence”
Purpose
I know the teaching you’re referring to, but you’ve got it all wrong. First of all, the “act itself” is comprised of
all three elements. The proper term for what you meant by that is the “object” of the moral act. Secondly, “intention” and “purpose” are basically the same, and the third aspect of the moral act - the circumstances involved - involve more than just the act’s consequences. Here is my authoritative source:
CCC 1750:
I. THE SOURCES OF MORALITY
1750 The morality of human acts depends on:
- the object chosen;
- the end in view or the intention;
- the circumstances of the action.
The object, the intention, and the circumstances make up the “sources,” or constitutive elements, of the morality of human acts.
Paragraphs 1751-1754 continue to describe these elements in more detail; they refer to them, respectively, as an act’s
object,
intention, and
circumstances. I encourage you to review this section of the Catechism:
scborromeo.org/ccc/p3s1c1a4.htm
All three constitutive elements must be moral - or at least morally neutral - for the act to be good. The object of the act is objective; it is the good to which the act is directed. The
intention, by contrast, is subjective: i.e. it resides within the
acting subject.
NFP does not alter the act itself
Correct. The
object of the act of using NFP is measuring a woman’s fertility. That’s acceptable, so if the act of using NFP has a good intention and justifying circumstances, then it’s morally acceptable.
but NFP could be judged to be immoral based on 1. the intention if it is to prevent a child being created
Let’s set this matter to rest right now. There are two possibilities that you’re inaccurately lumping together with your point #1:
a) A couple uses NFP by default, or haphazardly, because they either intend never to have children or they are avoiding pregnancy for unjust reasons.
If that is the case, then
yes, they are sinning, but that’s NOT because NFP (read: the object of their act) is immoral, but rather because they have a sinful intention.
b) A couple is temporarily seeking to avoid pregnancy for just/grave reasons.
This is
entirely morally acceptable according to the Catholic Church. As BiologyBrain put it:
How can NFP meet the criteria for being immoral based on your ethics class if the CCC clearly states that for just/grave/serious reasons spacing and/or planning children is morally acceptable?
On to your second possibility:
- the consequence which could be to seriously or partially reduce family size
Again, the consequences of an act are only part of that act’s
circumstances. Aside from your terminology issues, you’ve got it right, though. The use of NFP to avoid pregnancy must be justified by proportionately grave reasons (i.e. circumstances).
and 3. purpose. I can’t remember what purpose means.
That’s because you’ve already covered it under your possibility #1.
Anyway, I hope we can come to an agreement. Yes, the use of NFP could be immoral if not justified by proportionately grave circumstances and/or if done with an immoral intention. But the
intention is subjective, and the
circumstances vary from couple to couple.
In an objective sense, then, we can make sweeping blanket statements only about the
object of the act of measuring a married woman’s fertility. And the moral status of the object of that act is not in dispute - therefore the use of NFP to know when to abstain to avoid pregnancy
is moral if circumstances justify its use. End of story.