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The Son of God exists eternally.“Before Abraham was, I AM.” Yeah, what does that mean?
am: to be, to exist, to happen, to be present.
The Son of God exists eternally.“Before Abraham was, I AM.” Yeah, what does that mean?
Rhetorical question.The Son of God exists eternally.
am: to be, to exist, to happen, to be present.
Jesus is God no question about that. The point here is why Jesus did not openly declare that He is God as in: ''I AM GOD."He did not correct the Jews. Yes, He was making HImself equal with God.
Your affiliation says Catholic, fredms3. How can you be Catholic if you do not believe in the Trinity?
That’s an indirect way of saying it bro. The thread inquires why Jesus did not openly say this: “I AM GOD.”“Before Abraham was, I AM.” Yeah, what does that mean?
If Jesus happens to be born in our time, He would, i believe, face the same treatment he had experienced 2000 years ago.Well, who thinks the exact same thing would happen today?
If we heard about some man claiming to be God or the son of God, what would we immediately think? Even if we saw miracles with our own eyes, I bet most would still call him a fraud, hoaxer, etc.
If he did anything remotely against what the powers that be wanted, its pretty sure they would try to discredit him, arrest him, maybe even have him killed…seems like we have not changed much as a species.
To the believer, he did openly say it, to the non-believer, there were ordinary people around at the time self-proclaiming to be god. Shrouded in mystery, Jesus Christ, Emmanuel, God with us, did not rely on his open claim, his self-proclaim, but rather on the evidence of what he could and did do. Even the wind and the waves obey him. Creation itself subject to its Master.What do you think brothers and sisters?
According to the Jehovah’s Witnesses, it means the Jesus existed before Abraham. But the JW do not believe that this implies that Jesus was God“Before Abraham was, I AM.” Yeah, what does that mean?
Matt 26:63-65That’s an indirect way of saying it bro. The thread inquires why Jesus did not openly say this: “I AM GOD.”![]()
No, He was stating that He was the one who spoke to Moses Exodus 3:14It was because Jesus for them was uttering blasphemy, that He was making Himself equal with God. Jesus, however, was not directly saying that He is God as in: “I AM GOD”
In other words,God responded to Moses in the same way that Jesus responded to those he was addressing.No, He was stating that He was the one who spoke to Moses Exodus 3:14
Exod 3:15-Exod 3:14 NRSVCE
God also said to Moses, “Thus you shall say to the Israelites, ‘The Lord, the God of your ancestors, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you’: This is my name forever, and this my title for all generations. But Moses said to God, “If I come to the Israelites and say to them, ‘The God of your ancestors has sent me to you,’ and they ask me, ‘What is his name?’ what shall I say to them?” God said to Moses, “I AM who I AM.” He said further, “Thus you shall say to the Israelites, ‘I AM has sent me to you.’” 15 God also said to Moses, “Thus you shall say to the Israelites, ‘The Lord, the God of your ancestors, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you’:
Clearly, the Jewish people understood that the title “God” for them was identical to the divine name, I AM who I AM. So when Jesus responded with I AM statements, he effectively was making himself God – not merely “equal to” God, but God himself BECAUSE he was using not merely the title God, but the personal NAME of God.This is my name forever,
and this my title for all generations.
Likewise, neither Son of God and Son of Man meant God to the Jews.A “Messiah” is not “God” tho.
The “Messiah” was “the anointed one”-- meaning, the King of Isreal/King of the Jews.
The former kings in years past were called this because of the oil-anointing ceremony they did as they became king.
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He called himself the Son of God and forgave people’s sins. In Jewish culture only God could forgive sins. What do you think THAT means DaddyGirl?Right.
And then there’s the question of…*why *would he say he’s God in John, which was written approx 60-70 years after the fact…but not in Matthew, Mark, or Luke, written something like 35 to 55 years after he died?
If he’s God and he’s saying he’s God, why would Mark, Matthew, and Luke leave out such an important point to make–probably the most important?
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Clearly, you have NO idea what you are talking about.Right.
And then there’s the question of…*why *would he say he’s God in John, which was written approx 60-70 years after the fact…but not in Matthew, Mark, or Luke, written something like 35 to 55 years after he died?
If he’s God and he’s saying he’s God, why would Mark, Matthew, and Luke leave out such an important point to make–probably the most important?
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Sure, use that paragon of scholarly expertise with regard to Scripture – Wikipedia – to defend your claims.Likewise, neither Son of God and Son of Man meant God to the Jews.
When I read Mark 2:1-12, I can do so with the benefit of all the teachings on Christ’s divinity that have come afterwards. But if you don’t know that just look at the passage (I’ll use KJV)He called himself the Son of God and forgave people’s sins. In Jewish culture only God could forgive sins. What do you think THAT means DaddyGirl?
5 When Jesus saw their faith, he said unto the sick of the palsy, Son, thy sins be forgiven thee.
6 But there was certain of the scribes sitting there, and reasoning in their hearts,
7 Why doth this man thus speak blasphemies? who can forgive sins but God only?
8 And immediately when Jesus perceived in his spirit that they so reasoned within themselves, he said unto them, Why reason ye these things in your hearts?
9 Whether is it easier to say to the sick of the palsy, Thy sins be forgiven thee; or to say, Arise, and take up thy bed, and walk?
10 But that ye may know that the Son of man hath power on earth to forgive sins, (he saith to the sick of the palsy,)
11 I say unto thee, Arise, and take up thy bed, and go thy way into thine house.
you could pretty easily take that to mean “It’s not just God that can forgive sins, but Jesus too.” Two reasons for this are that one, as I mentioned in an earlier post, the Son of Man is not a title for God; it’s a powerful figure distinctly not God in the Jewish theology, and two that the scribes are amazed and glorify God, not Jesus. If they interpreted it as Jesus saying He is God, you might expect them to glorify Him directly. After all, they would be in presence of God!12 And immediately he arose, took up the bed, and went forth before them all; insomuch that they were all amazed, and glorified God, saying, We never saw it on this fashion.
…and of whom is Christ, according to the flesh, who is over all things, God blessed for ever. (Romans 9:5)Clearly, you have NO idea what you are talking about.
…Paul’s writings contain all kinds of references to Jesus being God and many of those were written within a decade or two of Jesus’ death AND Paul was a Pharisee who would have understood better than most what such a claim entailed. He compulsively checked the content of his message with Peter, James and John, the stalwarts of the faith in the very early days, so there is every reason to think they, too, believed Jesus was God and claimed to be God from the very beginning of his ministry.
Again, your “analysis” is shallow and tainted.
Clearly, you too, don’t understand what is involved in forgiving sins.These aren’t slam dunk arguments, but they do raise the question of the OP of why it isn’t more clear. To be honest, if I didn’t know the Church’s teachings on this matter, I would not read this passage as proof that Jesus was God, but rather that He had been given the ability to forgive sins and what the scribes learn how incredible He is, but not that He is God.
You haven’t made that case.…the Son of Man is not a title for God; it’s a powerful figure distinctly not God in the Jewish theology,…
Matthew 11:15What do you think brothers and sisters?