The fact that a baby is created by sexual intercourse between a man and a woman is – to you – injecting a “religious definition.”
Saying that a man and woman are needed for procreation is not religion, but going from:
“A man and a woman are needed for procreation,”
to:
“Therefore, a union that does not consist of a man and a woman should not be permitted the same recognition under the law as a married couple,”
is injecting your religion, especially once we establish that being able to procreate is
not a requirement for marriage. Get the difference?
The “standardized protections/privileges under the law” such as hospital visitation rights can easily be handled by other legal means.
Would you be in favor of same-sex couples having all the same standardized protections/privileges under the law as a married couple, just under a different name? If yes, that is practically indistinguishable from the state considering them married, if no, you would be in favor of denying them the same protection under the law as straight couples for religious reasons in violation of the 14th Amendment of the US Constitution (which is why the courts ruled that prop 8 from California was unconstitutional).
If those protections are what marriage is BASED on, then you obviously have no problem with a “marriage” between 4 people, if I so choose.
Non sequitur. We can permit same-sex couples to have the same rights as heterosexuals who are married without giving those same rights and responsibilities to more than two people. I suggest you review the
rights and responsibilities of marriages in the United States to find potential practical problems with recognizing 4 persons as married.
Again, why did governments even begin to start certifying love relationships of any kind?
It’s funny that you should appeal to history after saying that my view should incorporate polygamy. Lets rewind to the Bible to see what was considered marriage then. King Solomon had 700 wives and 300 concubines (1 King 11:3). In Deuteronomy 22:28-29, Yahweh
ordered single women who are raped to marry their rapist! The rapist did have to pay the
father of the girl (not the girl) fifty shekels of silver (after all, he damaged the women, which was considered the father’s property at that time!).
At some later points in history, governments certified marriages because they were contracts between the families of the spouses, while the spouses had no say. Do you really think we should limit ourselves by what earlier societies did?
Ultimately, why governments certified marriages in the past has little or no impact on the practical reasons we have to permit standardized protections/privileges under the law to those who live as a permanent couple who love each other.
Glad to address the other concerns once we iron out these foundational things: You say that marriage is limited to two people, but that it has nothing to do with sex.
I never said it had “Nothing to do with sex,” I say being able to reproduce is not a requirement (and
you agreed).
See earlier in this post.
Have have not discussed any practical reasons to deny same-sex couples civil marriage.
You also have not address the fact that there’s nothing in biology that suggests that it makes sense to allow a couple known to be infertile to marry if the purpose is procreation, but to deny it to gay couples. Both are just as “disordered” if your criteria is to procreate. If your criteria is that one partner must have male genitalia and the other female genitalia, then that is a
religious definition of marriage, not one determined by practical or biological reasons.
Also, given your ‘food is ordered to eating’ analogy earlier, you have not told me whether a taste-tester who is working for a major ice cream company is doing anything wrong by sampling milk from a truck for contaminants only to spit it out?
Ultimately, it seems to me that you are just forcing your religious beliefs into public policy which aught to be decided based on real-world consequences.