G
GaryTaylor
Guest
The KJV is a weakened Bible version to start with, the NIV is even a futher weakened version as I already stated above in how the translations came about.
For Example:
Micah-5:2 the KJV translation ‘goings forth’ is changed to ‘origins.’
The NIV reads: ‘But you, Bethlehem Ephratah, though you are small among the clans of Judah, out of you will come for me one who will be ruler over Israel, whose “origins” are from of old, from ancient times.’
Jesus Christ’s divine nature has no ‘origin.’ .NIV Micah-5:2, the deity of Christ, that Christ is eternal, is denied in this translation.
Romans-9:5 ‘Whose are the fathers, and of whom as concerning the flesh Christ came, who is over all, God blessed for ever. Amen.’ Christ is ‘God blessed for ever.’ Now in regards to the NIV suggested alternatives in footnotes.
‘Christ, who is over all. God be for ever praised!’; or, ‘Christ, God who is over all be for ever praised!’ In both of these alternatives ‘God blessed forever’ is separated from ‘Christ’ and forms a separate doxology. Neither of the alternatives preserves the powerful assertion with respect to the deity of Christ. Why is that?
Romans-3:25 the NIV changes ‘propitiation’ to merely ‘sacrifice of atonement’. But this confuses atonement, which is the result of the work of Christ, with propitiation, which is what Christ does to accomplish atonement. And thus, the whole doctrine is compromised in the catechism if the Lords day 5?
Acts-3:18 and 21 NIV drops ‘entirely’ the phrase ‘by the mouth of the prophets,’ a powerful testimony of divine inspiration that is lost to the reader!
Acts-7:38, ‘oracles’ {a Divine utterance} is reduced simply to ‘words’.
Acts-2:25. The ‘for’ is dropped at the beginning of Acts 2:25. Lost is the important point that Jesus could not be held in the grave because Scripture had to be fulfilled. What is given as a reason for the resurrection is reduced to an unconnect fact!
NIV makes concessions to Pre-millennialism and Dispensationalism in its translation. This is the case in {Acts7:38}, part of the speech of Stephen to the Jewish council before his martyrdom.
KJV reads: ‘This is he, that was in the church in the wilderness with the angel which spake to him in the Mount Sinai.’
NIV reads: ‘He was in the assembly in the desert, with our fathers and with the angel who spoke to him on Mount Sinai.’ Deliberately the word ‘church,’
In the Greek here is the well-known word ‘ekklesia,’ is changed to ‘assembly,’ and the repudiation of the Pre-millennial/Dispensational error that separates Old Testament Israel from the New Testament, Gentile church on the basis of Acts-7:38 is lost.
Concession to the Pre-millennial/Dispensational notion of the ‘rapture’ is also seen in the NIV rendering of the references to Christ’s coming ‘quickly’ {that is, how He comes}, to His coming ‘soon’ {that is, when He is coming}.
And this just goes on and on and on. I find it facinating who is actually coming here promoting this nonsense.
Did you know the same publisher of the NIV publish’s the Satanic Bible? Zondervan which is a division of Harper Collins publishes the work.
Simply put the NIV scriptures are missing text from the King James Version. A noted homosexual, was on the translation committee, and the word “soddomite” isn’t found in the NIV version, and verses on homosexuality are vastly changed. Just the facts. As I said you can go on all day about this edition. Whats astounding are those who come here to exclaim how Catholics alter the scripture to favor the Catholic Church. What does the NIV favor then. Since we are talking frankly?
God Bless, Gary
For Example:
Micah-5:2 the KJV translation ‘goings forth’ is changed to ‘origins.’
The NIV reads: ‘But you, Bethlehem Ephratah, though you are small among the clans of Judah, out of you will come for me one who will be ruler over Israel, whose “origins” are from of old, from ancient times.’
Jesus Christ’s divine nature has no ‘origin.’ .NIV Micah-5:2, the deity of Christ, that Christ is eternal, is denied in this translation.
Romans-9:5 ‘Whose are the fathers, and of whom as concerning the flesh Christ came, who is over all, God blessed for ever. Amen.’ Christ is ‘God blessed for ever.’ Now in regards to the NIV suggested alternatives in footnotes.
‘Christ, who is over all. God be for ever praised!’; or, ‘Christ, God who is over all be for ever praised!’ In both of these alternatives ‘God blessed forever’ is separated from ‘Christ’ and forms a separate doxology. Neither of the alternatives preserves the powerful assertion with respect to the deity of Christ. Why is that?
Romans-3:25 the NIV changes ‘propitiation’ to merely ‘sacrifice of atonement’. But this confuses atonement, which is the result of the work of Christ, with propitiation, which is what Christ does to accomplish atonement. And thus, the whole doctrine is compromised in the catechism if the Lords day 5?
Acts-3:18 and 21 NIV drops ‘entirely’ the phrase ‘by the mouth of the prophets,’ a powerful testimony of divine inspiration that is lost to the reader!
Acts-7:38, ‘oracles’ {a Divine utterance} is reduced simply to ‘words’.
Acts-2:25. The ‘for’ is dropped at the beginning of Acts 2:25. Lost is the important point that Jesus could not be held in the grave because Scripture had to be fulfilled. What is given as a reason for the resurrection is reduced to an unconnect fact!
NIV makes concessions to Pre-millennialism and Dispensationalism in its translation. This is the case in {Acts7:38}, part of the speech of Stephen to the Jewish council before his martyrdom.
KJV reads: ‘This is he, that was in the church in the wilderness with the angel which spake to him in the Mount Sinai.’
NIV reads: ‘He was in the assembly in the desert, with our fathers and with the angel who spoke to him on Mount Sinai.’ Deliberately the word ‘church,’
In the Greek here is the well-known word ‘ekklesia,’ is changed to ‘assembly,’ and the repudiation of the Pre-millennial/Dispensational error that separates Old Testament Israel from the New Testament, Gentile church on the basis of Acts-7:38 is lost.
Concession to the Pre-millennial/Dispensational notion of the ‘rapture’ is also seen in the NIV rendering of the references to Christ’s coming ‘quickly’ {that is, how He comes}, to His coming ‘soon’ {that is, when He is coming}.
And this just goes on and on and on. I find it facinating who is actually coming here promoting this nonsense.
Did you know the same publisher of the NIV publish’s the Satanic Bible? Zondervan which is a division of Harper Collins publishes the work.
Simply put the NIV scriptures are missing text from the King James Version. A noted homosexual, was on the translation committee, and the word “soddomite” isn’t found in the NIV version, and verses on homosexuality are vastly changed. Just the facts. As I said you can go on all day about this edition. Whats astounding are those who come here to exclaim how Catholics alter the scripture to favor the Catholic Church. What does the NIV favor then. Since we are talking frankly?
God Bless, Gary
See my post #57.
) and my go-to Bible is the ESV. I consider the NIV a little less accurate, but along with the NLT, it’s one I like for ease of reading. I’m not yet very familiar with the new 2011 NIV, but I hope it’ll be an improvement.