Why should a person prefer hylomorphic dualism to competing positions in the philosophy of mind?

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I’d question the assumption that this is still about deciding which philosopher makes the best argument. It’s true that until recently they were the only game in town. With no tools available to investigate objectively, arguments had to be based on a philosopher’s mind trying to explain itself, based on its intuitions, on what it experiences of itself, on what it believes about itself.
This is only true to a certain extent. Some of the theories of the mind were based on introspection, but some were based on necessary metaphysical principles.
But that has now changed, and Aristotelians and Cartesians may not realize how rapidly the science of mind is progressing. Without even trying to draw the conclusion that the mind can be explained from the nervous system alone, it turns out that way in case after case after case.
I don’t think that this can possibly be the case. I don’t think that neuroscience is, even in theory, capable of explaining what Aristotle calls abstraction. Can neuroscience explain how the mind is able to form universal concepts?
Whereas opponents, whatever their position, don’t do research and can only stand on the sidelines. So I’d turn the question round: in the same way we moved on from celestial spheres and other such cosmologies, why should a person still listen to any armchair philosophers of mind?
For the same reason why philosophers are needed to explain humanity or morality. A scientist can study the human body as much as he wants, but he will never discover humanity. A scientist can study the processes in the brain/body that are accidentally involved when we make moral judgements, but this will never get a scientist even beginning to understand the nature of morality/ethics. Trying to understand a thing by only looking at its matter is like trying to understand a painting by only analysing the paint/pigment the painting is made up of materially. A painting is not just made up of matter (pigment), it is also made up of form (the figures and themes represented).
The neuroscientist will never discover the mind. He will only ever discover the neuro-biological / neuro-chemical processes which the mind makes use of. Aristotle already knew that there were biological organs involved in sensation/consciousness. The more and more detailed study of those biological organs does not harm Aristotle’s theories at all, anymore than a more detailed study of the theory of colours harms Raphael’s The School of Athens.
 
Scholastics are no more in the clear on how a spiritual substance can affect a material body. However, Descartes’s position is that the body and the soul form one substance. He says this three different times in his Reply to the Fourth Objection
St. Thomas Aquinas also thought that a human being was one substance made of body and soul. Descartes was probably just parroting scholastic terms there.
 
A substance dualist probably would argue that, since for substance dualists usually any kind of qualitative experience is immaterial. An imagined paella is material since it only involves recalling particular material accidents. BTW, I’ve noticed that you seem to have a thing for paellas since they are always your stock example in these discussions :D.
For some reason suddenly I’m hungry.
*At this point I’m not too concerned on what the categories are. The point is that reality is categorical. Form and matter do not designate categories such that some things are forms and some things are matter. All things are matter and form (I’m obviously bracketing off the discussion about whether pure immaterial forms, i.e. angels, exist since that is a theological issue). *
A string theorist would still object that there is no matter, only form. I’d still object that no one has shown that hylomorphism has the correct categories, or even that reality is categorical rather than how our minds make sense of the world. And I’d still object that we don’t have to answer such questions to study the mind.
That is idealism, which, if you deny that there are objective categories, i.e. that reality is rational through-and-through, then idealism is the only logical conclusion since we undoubtedly only make the world intelligible through use of concepts and categories. Our understanding of the material world seems to presuppose the mental world, so if you are going to jettison one of them it has to be the material world.
I think you’re assuming dualism by supposing separate material and mental worlds, a monist only sees one.
But the evidence is not self-interpreting. You have to analyze it in some theoretical framework, which is to apply some universal nature or category to it. That was Peter’s point. If these categories are not objectively real, then the evidence is not taking you anywhere and all you know is how your mind happens to represent some unknown reality to you. The evidence is not leading you, you are going on some walk to who knows where. The solipsist goes one step further and questions whether existence itself is just a mental representation.
Going back to my paella, originally the atomist’s theoretical framework only had a category of atom. The evidence showed that the atomist was on the right lines, but then the additional category of molecule was added to explain observations, and the two categories and framework have since evolved to explain further observations. They may change again, no biggy. Whereas hylomorphism’s categories and framework appear to be unchangeable, carved in stone, regardless of the evidence.
*II doubt any pre-modern Aristotelian would be that astonished to know any of that, since they already made provisions for the material cause of a thing, which is what you are describing. A paella is still a paella. It is not a tree or some other kind of thing.
Well if your objection to hylomorphism is that we expected reality to be “made of” forms and matter and, since we didn’t find any forms and matter when we broke things down into their constituent parts, therefore hylomorphism is refuted, then you are still missing the whole point of hylomorphism. Forms and matter are not two “things” that enter into the composition of larger aggregate things. You’re not going to find forms and matter by breaking larger things down into smaller things, since form and matter describe “thingness.” They are not the basic things that comprise larger things.*
But it’s contentious whether “thingness” is part of objective reality, or is only how we make sense of the world. When does paella stop being the ingredients and first become a thing? Then when you eat it, at what point does it stop being paella and become balto? If paella was truly a separate thing, rather than part of the world, we couldn’t even see or detect it in any way, since any interaction would mean it’s a part of the world rather than separate.

We could debate such symantics, but it’s still unclear to me why they would need to be settled to explain the mind, when they don’t have to be settled to study geology or climb a hill or eat paella.
Well the only assumption seems to be that reality is really intelligible, which would be needed to come to any real understanding of either the mind or geology, so no I don’t think you’d need any extra assumptions for either of those two subject matters, but maybe I am missing something.
There’s perhaps a big difference then. In geology and in explaining the mind, along with many other subjects, we’ve never had to assume that reality is intelligible. It just turns out that up to now, it is. Perhaps there are areas we’ll never to able to fully explain, but so far it hasn’t stopped us.
 
Listen, I’m not an expert on this topic. I am still learning about it. Which is why I haven’t said anything until now. But I can see that you are not open to it or are not willing to understand it. I don’t fully understand it yet but I am willing to learn. I mean if you have a problem with the idea of form and matter do you have some better description to offer us? Or are you just being contentious for the sake of being contentious? You believe in soul sleep right? Is that the real reason you reject any sort of dualism or that anything survives the body?

One other thing I wanted to ask you is if you are not an atheist then why not? The same arguments you are using to convince yourself not to be open to an immaterial mind also can be used to deny the existence of God. I hear atheists all the time talk about how religion is just superstition and that science will explain everything including God as some natural process. Yet science can only give you probability knowledge. It can’t give you certainty.

The reason that form and matter work as descriptors apart from science is because they are obviously true. It’s not like we have to go around scientifically proving that material things can be described as a composition of form and matter. We can know this just by using our intellect. Even science itself is full of basic philosophical assumptions that can not be scientifically proven, yet are held to be true.
Does John say: “For God so loved the world that he gave us Aristotle, that whoever believes in hylomorphism shall not perish but have eternal life”??? The OP asks why should a person prefer hylomorphic dualism, and signing up to it merely to stop you making personal remarks isn’t exactly a positive reason.

On certainty: All a posteriori knowledge is provisional, whether in science, philosophy or elsewhere. Thomas himself makes a posteriori arguments.

On science: It’s about avoiding assumptions. If you vary the ingredients when cooking paella, a little more or less salt and so on to see how it changes the taste, you are doing science. On the other hand, if you make assumptions instead of testing, you’re not doing science.

On fear of science: Truth cannot contradict truth.

On form: It’s still the case that a string theorist would claim there’s no matter, only form. It’s still the case that I can’t get the slightest bit interested in whether there’s form, matter, both or neither, as no one has explained why it might be necessary to settle that issue to explain the mind. Perhaps you could enlighten me.
 
This is only true to a certain extent. Some of the theories of the mind were based on introspection, but some were based on necessary metaphysical principles.
Logically then, there is no agreement on what the necessary metaphysical principles might be, or else there wouldn’t be so many different theories of mind,
I don’t think that this can possibly be the case. I don’t think that neuroscience is, even in theory, capable of explaining what Aristotle calls abstraction. Can neuroscience explain how the mind is able to form universal concepts?
When an antelope sees a lion, she is wary even though she may never have met that particular lion before. Abstraction from specifics doesn’t seem difficult.
For the same reason why philosophers are needed to explain humanity or morality. A scientist can study the human body as much as he wants, but he will never discover humanity. A scientist can study the processes in the brain/body that are accidentally involved when we make moral judgements, but this will never get a scientist even beginning to understand the nature of morality/ethics. Trying to understand a thing by only looking at its matter is like trying to understand a painting by only analysing the paint/pigment the painting is made up of materially. A painting is not just made up of matter (pigment), it is also made up of form (the figures and themes represented).
The neuroscientist will never discover the mind. He will only ever discover the neuro-biological / neuro-chemical processes which the mind makes use of. Aristotle already knew that there were biological organs involved in sensation/consciousness. The more and more detailed study of those biological organs does not harm Aristotle’s theories at all, anymore than a more detailed study of the theory of colours harms Raphael’s The School of Athens
.
I can see where you’re trying to go with this labor union demarcation dispute :D, but according to other fans of hylomorphism, everything is form+matter, so observing form is not just the province of hylomorphist philosophers. Have a look at post #43 about neuroscience’s developing explanation of racism. It’s obviously a work in progress, but that kind of explanation of the mind would seem valuable to all of us, including philosophers of ethics and to racists themselves.
 
Does John say: “For God so loved the world that he gave us Aristotle, that whoever believes in hylomorphism shall not perish but have eternal life”??? The OP asks why should a person prefer hylomorphic dualism, and signing up to it merely to stop you making personal remarks isn’t exactly a positive reason.
No I was just curious that you seem to be so bent on only science being the answer to our questions on the mind while remaining skeptical about philosophical arguments. It seems contradictory to accept philosophical arguments for God but then reject them for the mind. Perhaps its because you accept that science has limitations when it comes to determining God’s existence. Similarly though, shouldn’t one expect limitations on science when it comes to determining the immaterial mind? Sure, if science can give us all the answers, I’m all for it. I just don’t think science can do that. That would be an assumption I just don’t see is possible.
On certainty: All a posteriori knowledge is provisional, whether in science, philosophy or elsewhere. Thomas himself makes a posteriori arguments.

On science: It’s about avoiding assumptions. If you vary the ingredients when cooking paella, a little more or less salt and so on to see how it changes the taste, you are doing science. On the other hand, if you make assumptions instead of testing, you’re not doing science.
Science has to make assumptions too. You have to start with some assumptions no matter what you are doing. For example, scientists assume that the laws of physics are the same on Earth as they are on Mars. Or that they are the same throughout the universe or that the laws of physics don’t change with time. There are many such assumptions. Like assuming that the human mind is capable of knowing truth about the universe. If we aren’t capable of knowing truth then there would not be much point to doing science.
On fear of science: Truth cannot contradict truth.
I’m not fearing science. I would just say that science has its limits. It can not know if the mind is immaterial for instance since it is always only looking at the material. If you are not looking for something you are not going to see it.
On form: It’s still the case that a string theorist would claim there’s no matter, only form. It’s still the case that I can’t get the slightest bit interested in whether there’s form, matter, both or neither, as no one has explained why it might be necessary to settle that issue to explain the mind. Perhaps you could enlighten me.
I don’t understand string theory very well. However, I doubt that a string theorist would have Aristotles idea of forms in mind in the first place. I have been reading Feser’s book called “Aquinas” and he mentions that a lot of modern definitions of words that philosophers use today are not the same as what Aquinas defined them to be. I’m not sure if we can call a string a form or not. Since I don’t know what it is. But, even if we could Aquinas accepted that there were things in existence that only had form but did not have matter. He called these angels.
 
My point is that none of that tells us anything at all about what might be going on between your ears. It tells us nothing about the phenomenon, only about the opinions of some philosophers on interpreting their own philosophy.
The same, apparently, goes for the opinions of behaviourist scientists making claims about the reducibility of mind based upon the “evidence” concerning the “determined” nature of human behaviour.

weeklystandard.com/articles/making-it-all_1042807.html?nopager=1
 
The same, apparently, goes for the opinions of behaviourist scientists making claims about the reducibility of mind based upon the “evidence” concerning the “determined” nature of human behaviour.

weeklystandard.com/articles/making-it-all_1042807.html?nopager=1
Yes, it’s good that even the “soft” sciences are self-correcting. If you want more of that kind of article, you could always subscribe to the Journal of Irreproducible Results, which is edited by a team of PhD scientists and medics to satirize bad science. Don’t know if philosophers have a similar journal to highlight bad philosophy.

Many Christians take up science. Perhaps they have a curiosity about God’s Creation. Perhaps they are driven to find cures for diseases and to help others. Perhaps they believe it would be the height of hypocrisy to use all the fruits of science, including medical care for themselves and their loved ones, while mocking science and scientists. Perhaps they’re just not afraid to learn. 🤷.
 
Yes, it’s good that even the “soft” sciences are self-correcting. If you want more of that kind of article, you could always subscribe to the Journal of Irreproducible Results, which is edited by a team of PhD scientists and medics to satirize bad science. Don’t know if philosophers have a similar journal to highlight bad philosophy.

Many Christians take up science. Perhaps they have a curiosity about God’s Creation. Perhaps they are driven to find cures for diseases and to help others. Perhaps they believe it would be the height of hypocrisy to use all the fruits of science, including medical care for themselves and their loved ones, while mocking science and scientists. Perhaps they’re just not afraid to learn. 🤷.
I feel the biting sarcasm coming my way and the earth shake as the goalposts have been torn out of their foundations.

The problem is that you seem unable or unwilling to apply the same distinction - the one that you permit between poorly done science as it is practiced by fallible human beings and good science as it ought to be practiced ideally - to apply to philosophy. Why the double standard?

I also think you have me confused with someone else. I do value good science AND I value good philosophy. They have slightly different aims and means but their methods and goals overlap as well. Which is why philosophy can critique science and why the philosophy of science exists to do so.

I suppose it would be just as appropriate to point out that it is at least an equal level of hypocrisy for anyone to use all the fruits of philosophy, including using the ability to think for themselves and on behalf of their loved ones and society, while mocking philosophers and logicians. It is the ideas behind the techniques that have got us where we are in terms of civilization, technology and all other human affairs - good, bad or indifferent.

The problem is that you want to attribute all of that advance to a subset of human endeavor and deny that the prior and grounding reason for ALL advance has been due to human ability to think and reason - essentially what is formally known as philosophy.

Just as that ability has been the cause of great harm when done improperly - Marxism, for example - it can and has been the cause of great good in areas like epistemology, ethics, political philosophy and metaphysics which underpin social, political and technological advance.

I am not ready to admit all science as practiced by human beings is done well. So what? I am neither admitting that all human philosophy and reasoning is done well, either.

So stop making this about me having an “unscientific mind” merely because I am not willing to see all science as it is practiced and all scientists no matter what they do or say as having some kind of immunity from critique. Neither of them do and neither do philosophy nor philosophers.

Perhaps the difference between “in principle” and “in practice” would be helpful to you since you want to reduce all of my critiques of some of the practices in science and by some scientists as an “in principle” critique of all science and all scientists. It isn’t.

But, of course, you can’t seem to see that it is possible to criticize some philosophy, some philosophical notions and some philosophers without necessarily implicating all philosophers and all philosophy.

This is your either/or mindset coming into play. It is a fundamentalism, of sorts, that keeps pushing you to reduce and simplify everything to “black or white” - for example, science or philosophy - in order to comprehend reality on your terms rather than grapple with things to understand them as they truly are in themselves.
 
I feel the biting sarcasm coming my way and the earth shake as the goalposts have been torn out of their foundations.

The problem is that you seem unable or unwilling to apply the same distinction - the one that you permit between poorly done science as it is practiced by fallible human beings and good science as it ought to be practiced ideally - to apply to philosophy. Why the double standard?

I also think you have me confused with someone else. I do value good science AND I value good philosophy. They have slightly different aims and means but their methods and goals overlap as well. Which is why philosophy can critique science and why the philosophy of science exists to do so.

I suppose it would be just as appropriate to point out that it is at least an equal level of hypocrisy for anyone to use all the fruits of philosophy, including using the ability to think for themselves and on behalf of their loved ones and society, while mocking philosophers and logicians. It is the ideas behind the techniques that have got us where we are in terms of civilization, technology and all other human affairs - good, bad or indifferent.

The problem is that you want to attribute all of that advance to a subset of human endeavor and deny that the prior and grounding reason for ALL advance has been due to human ability to think and reason - essentially what is formally known as philosophy.

Just as that ability has been the cause of great harm when done improperly - Marxism, for example - it can and has been the cause of great good in areas like epistemology, ethics, political philosophy and metaphysics which underpin social, political and technological advance.

I am not ready to admit all science as practiced by human beings is done well. So what? I am neither admitting that all human philosophy and reasoning is done well, either.

So stop making this about me having an “unscientific mind” merely because I am not willing to see all science as it is practiced and all scientists no matter what they do or say as having some kind of immunity from critique. Neither of them do and neither do philosophy nor philosophers.

Perhaps the difference between “in principle” and “in practice” would be helpful to you since you want to reduce all of my critiques of some of the practices in science and by some scientists as an “in principle” critique of all science and all scientists. It isn’t.

But, of course, you can’t seem to see that it is possible to criticize some philosophy, some philosophical notions and some philosophers without necessarily implicating all philosophers and all philosophy.

This is your either/or mindset coming into play. It is a fundamentalism, of sorts, that keeps pushing you to reduce and simplify everything to “black or white” - for example, science or philosophy - in order to comprehend reality on your terms rather than grapple with things to understand them as they truly are in themselves.
I think you have me confused with someone else. I’ve repeated more than once that truth cannot contradict truth, and that philosophers as well as scientists use a posteriori arguments. It’s not mocking philosophy to disagree with supposed demarcation disputes between philosophy and science.

But hang on there, do professional philosophers agree with those who say Aristotle’s writings on the mind are philosophy?

No they don’t. They categorize it as psychology - plato.stanford.edu/entries/aristotle-psychology/index.html

Psychology = the scientific study of the human mind and its functions, especially those affecting behavior in a given context (from the OED)

And that’s the branch of science you just criticized as being, in your words, “based upon the “evidence” concerning the “determined” nature of human behaviour”.

😃

Aristotle’s hypotheses on the mind are speculative, in other words based on conjecture rather than knowledge. Whereas neuroscience is based on hard evidence and on a self-correcting methodology. It’s already giving us answers on depression, racism, helping a blind person’s mind to see… More insight and benefit in a few decades than Aristotle’s writings on psychology have provided in 2300 years.

Aristotle was a great thinker, he contributed much. But his psychology, just as with his celestial spheres and many other topics, lacks evidence. His hypothesis on how bees reproduce is also wrong, but he ends it by saying something valuable to philosophers and scientists:

“Not that there is, currently, any proper understanding of what those facts [about bees’ behavior] are. If in the future they are understood, it will be when the evidence of the senses is relied on more than theories, though theories have a part to play so long as what they indicate agrees with the facts.” - quoted in The Lagoon: How Aristotle Invented Science :whistle:
 
I’d still object that no one has shown that hylomorphism has the correct categories,
I did not propose any categories to use.
or even that reality is categorical rather than how our minds make sense of the world.
Then that is idealism, and you’re not really studying “reality”, you are studying your own psychology.
And I’d still object that we don’t have to answer such questions to study the mind.
The question will be answered either consciously or unconsciously. It seems to matter a great deal because it means the difference between studying “minds” vs. studying your own mental representations of whatever reality is, whether it exists or not.
I think you’re assuming dualism by supposing separate material and mental worlds, a monist only sees one.
I don’t suppose that the material and mental worlds are separate. That would be Cartesian substance dualism. You can still draw a distinction between the material and mental world even if they are inseparable just the same as you can draw a distinction between a circle’s radius and its circumference even though the two do not exist independently of each other.
Going back to my paella, originally the atomist’s theoretical framework only had a category of atom. The evidence showed that the atomist was on the right lines, but then the additional category of molecule was added to explain observations, and the two categories and framework have since evolved to explain further observations. They may change again, no biggy. Whereas hylomorphism’s categories and framework appear to be unchangeable, carved in stone, regardless of the evidence.
You are using the categories of “atom” and “molecule” to explain the phenomenon you experience. Hylomorphism is not interested in offering categories to explain reality. You cannot seem to explain any reality without making recourse to some category or other.
When does paella stop being the ingredients and first become a thing?
A paella is an accidental form. It is nothing more than the ingredients.
Then when you eat it, at what point does it stop being paella and become balto?
When it’s matter ceases to be informed by the ingredients and becomes informed by my rational soul. You are asking this question because you suppose that reality is “nothing but” the atoms and that these names “paella” and “balto” are just words we ascribe to certain configurations of atoms.

First you’d have to explain why we should believe that forms exist at the atomic level, since “atoms” exist, but no other level, since we apparently take atoms to be real things that exist apart from our minds but nothing larger than that. Turning around and denying that they have intelligible forms seems to commit you to the view that all reality reduces to prime matter, pure potency, which is to say that there is no material world, only a mental world that gives us representations that appear in some regular fashion for no reason at all. Affirming that forms exist at the atomic level immediately leads to the question of why we should suppose that they do not exist at the macro level also, given that the macro world is more intelligible to us than the atomic world, not less.
If paella was truly a separate thing, rather than part of the world, we couldn’t even see or detect it in any way, since any interaction would mean it’s a part of the world rather than separate.
I don’t know what you are getting at here. My only guess is that you are supposing that forms and matter are distinct things, which is what Platonism supposes. Hylomorphism rejects that view. The form is the intelligible aspect of the paella. It is not a “thing” anymore than the visual aspects of the paella are a separately-existing “thing.”
There’s perhaps a big difference then. In geology and in explaining the mind, along with many other subjects, we’ve never had to assume that reality is intelligible. It just turns out that up to now, it is. Perhaps there are areas we’ll never to able to fully explain, but so far it hasn’t stopped us.
If you purport to study “reality”, as geology and psychology both purport to do, then yes, you have implicitly assumed that reality is intelligible. Earlier you were concerned that maybe reality is not intelligible after all, yet here you are saying that “up to now, it is.” How do you know that, without assuming hylomorphism to some degree?
 
inocente;13399797:
I’d still object that no one has shown that hylomorphism has the correct categories.
I did not propose any categories to use.
I was referring to hylomorphism’s 1001 categories.
inocente;13399797:
or even that reality is categorical rather than how our minds make sense of the world.
Then that is idealism, and you’re not really studying “reality”, you are studying your own psychology.
We don’t need to get into that, since monism speaks of one entity (be it mind or world) and that entity might truly be one rather than divided into 1001 categories.
inocente;13399797:
And I’d still object that we don’t have to answer such questions to study the mind.
The question will be answered either consciously or unconsciously. It seems to matter a great deal because it means the difference between studying “minds” vs. studying your own mental representations of whatever reality is, whether it exists or not.
How we mentally represent isn’t something we should assume in researching the mind, since it’s a big part of what we can learn. For instance, we know that the brain is wired for pattern recognition, so we can infer that Homo Sapiens is biased to see reality as sets of patterns. The desire to categorize would then be an artifact of having a mind built to recognize patterns.
You are using the categories of “atom” and “molecule” to explain the phenomenon you experience. Hylomorphism is not interested in offering categories to explain reality.
Atom and molecule refer to observable phenomena. In your second sentence, you may have forgotten to add that “Hylomorphism is not interested in offering categories to explain reality other than potency, actuality, prime matter, matter, form, substance, substantial forms, accidental forms, body, soul, passive intellect, active intellect, etc., etc.”. 😃
A paella is an accidental form. It is nothing more than the ingredients.
There you go, you just used one of hylomorphism’s 1001 categories.
When it’s matter ceases to be informed by the ingredients and becomes informed by my rational soul. You are asking this question because you suppose that reality is “nothing but” the atoms and that these names “paella” and “balto” are just words we ascribe to certain configurations of atoms.
You’re not the first person on this thread to tell me what I believe without even knowing me. Perhaps there’s a connection between belief in hylomorphism and jumping to conclusions without cause. Even so it’s an extraordinary insult to say that a monist mother sees her baby as a mere configuration of atoms.
First you’d have to explain why we should believe that forms exist at the atomic level, since “atoms” exist, but no other level, since we apparently take atoms to be real things that exist apart from our minds but nothing larger than that. Turning around and denying that they have intelligible forms seems to commit you to the view that all reality reduces to prime matter, pure potency, which is to say that there is no material world, only a mental world that gives us representations that appear in some regular fashion for no reason at all. Affirming that forms exist at the atomic level immediately leads to the question of why we should suppose that they do not exist at the macro level also, given that the macro world is more intelligible to us than the atomic world, not less.
< sigh > All I asked was “Then when you eat it, at what point does it stop being paella and become balto?” and somehow you’ve woven it into this thing you have about bags of atoms.

On this thread I’ve been likened to an atheist, told I’m no longer welcome at the Christian country club, and now that I’m incapable of seeing babies and can only see bags of atoms. Why should a person prefer hylomorphic dualism? After 70 posts, it would have been good to see just one positive reason.
I don’t know what you are getting at here. My only guess is that you are supposing that forms and matter are distinct things, which is what Platonism supposes. Hylomorphism rejects that view. The form is the intelligible aspect of the paella. It is not a “thing” anymore than the visual aspects of the paella are a separately-existing “thing.”
No, it was simply we only know of paella because it is part of our universe. If it was truly a separate thing, it would necessarily be outside our universe and there would be no way to get to it, no way to know whether or not it exists.
If you purport to study “reality”, as geology and psychology both purport to do, then yes, you have implicitly assumed that reality is intelligible. Earlier you were concerned that maybe reality is not intelligible after all, yet here you are saying that “up to now, it is.” How do you know that, without assuming hylomorphism to some degree?
I don’t remember any such concern, and now it’s my turn to be lost. What proportion of the world’s population, including one billion Chinese etc., even know of hylomorphism? If I stand at the entrance to the mall, even in Catholic Spain, I doubt more than a handful would have ever heard of it. Yet, you say, that overwhelming majority of humanity must somehow magically be assuming hylomorphism to some degree.

In your dreams. 😃

We can continue studying geology, along with the mind and anything else without making any assumptions whatsoever, in the same way that stone age man didn’t have to make any assumptions about reality or intelligibility to learn how to hunt. It just turns out to be one of the things we can do.

Perhaps we should stop now - can’t think of anything more I wanted to say on this thread. Thanks for the conversations.
 
We can continue studying geology, along with the mind and anything else without making any assumptions whatsoever,…
Now THAT statement is, itself, one heck of an assumption about what is NOT required to study geology, the mind or anything else “whatsoever.”

I find it amusing that you can make such self-defeating statements and not even realize how self-refuting they really are. It is a perfect depiction of ignoring what you ignore as a corollary of assuming it doesn’t exist.
 
Now THAT statement is, itself, one heck of an assumption about what is NOT required to study geology, the mind or anything else “whatsoever.”

I find it amusing that you can make such self-defeating statements and not even realize how self-refuting they really are. It is a perfect depiction of ignoring what you ignore as a corollary of assuming it doesn’t exist.
Reminds me of the black knight. “I can still bite you!” 😛

(Please Note: This uploaded content is no longer available.)

God bless,
Ut
 
Now THAT statement is, itself, one heck of an assumption about what is NOT required to study geology, the mind or anything else “whatsoever.”

I find it amusing that you can make such self-defeating statements and not even realize how self-refuting they really are. It is a perfect depiction of ignoring what you ignore as a corollary of assuming it doesn’t exist.
You forgot to respond ;), but I guess you were equally amused that real philosophers call hylomorphism psychology rather than being smart enough to call it philosophy like wot u do.

You didn’t comment either 😉 on the research I linked on racism. That one piece of research serves to undermine every racist argument ever made, since it shows that racism is born out of irrational fear. Can hylomorphism match even that one piece of research in the benefits has it brought to humanity?

No doubt it’s dumb of all those neuroscientists to do their research without ever stopping to get caught up pondering your imponderables. Watch the following to see why they might have other priorities. Can hylomorphism do that?

bbc.com/future/story/20141111-the-code-that-may-treat-blindness
 
How we mentally represent isn’t something we should assume in researching the mind
:confused: Um, what? How we represent things is a datum for which any coherent theory of mind would have to account. It’s not an assumption. I don’t know how you can see these mental representations as anything other than an empirical data point in need of explanation without making some kind of reductionist assumption, which you claim you are not doing.
For instance, we know that the brain is wired for pattern recognition, so we can infer that Homo Sapiens is biased to see reality as sets of patterns. The desire to categorize would then be an artifact of having a mind built to recognize patterns.
Right, we recognize “patterns in nature.” So your only objection is that you do not like the term “form” and would rather use “pattern.” I’m not really all that interested in semantics, I am interested in the realities that these words are intended to point towards. So what is a pattern and how do humans conceive of it, since you admit that they really enter into our mental activities, enter being understood metaphorically and not physically of course (unless you want to argue that a pattern is a physical thing)?
In your second sentence, you may have forgotten to add that “Hylomorphism is not interested in offering categories to explain reality other than potency, actuality, prime matter, matter, form, substance, substantial forms, accidental forms, body, soul, passive intellect, active intellect, etc., etc.”. 😃
I was hoping you would provide a list like this. I seem to remember explaining to you earlier that form and matter do not refer to things, so they are not categories since categories specify things of a universal type. Substance is also not a category since it refers to anything and could only be contrasted with non-being, which is not a thing and hence not a category. Ditto with substantial and accidental forms. Potency and actuality also do not denote things since they enter into the composition of thingness itself and refer to form and matter when viewed from the aspect of change. A soul is a living form. Passive and active intellect refer to faculties of a rational soul, just like “walking” is not a thing either. Atom and molecule are categories since they classify substances/things.
There you go, you just used one of hylomorphism’s 1001 categories.
Only if you suppose that forms are things, which hylomorphism denies.
You’re not the first person on this thread to tell me what I believe without even knowing me. Perhaps there’s a connection between belief in hylomorphism and jumping to conclusions without cause. Even so it’s an extraordinary insult to say that a monist mother sees her baby as a mere configuration of atoms.
This must be some kind of debating strategy. Never adopt any specific viewpoint explicitly so you can always cry foul and say “that’s not what I meant.” And then invent wild interpretations of what other people wrote so you can feign righteous indignation. I’m sorry, but I am not really amused by mere rhetoric. Would you like to offer an argument against the hylomorphic viewpoint, or should I just keep guessing? I’m not really doing any of this to convert you since I already know that you are not interested in seriously investigating the topic. I am doing it because I think it may help me to understand my own views better and may be helpful to anyone reading this thread that is serious about understanding these issues.
On this thread I’ve been likened to an atheist, told I’m no longer welcome at the Christian country club, and now that I’m incapable of seeing babies and can only see bags of atoms.
Is any of this relevant to our discussion of hylomorphism? Is there some bogeyman walking around in here or something? Even if there were it has no bearing on whether “a person should prefer hylomorphic dualism to competing positions in philosophy of mind”, so I don’t see the value in discussing it.
Why should a person prefer hylomorphic dualism? After 70 posts, it would have been good to see just one positive reason.
We have tried to patiently explain it to you on numerous occasions, but you do not want to understand it. My hope is that this discussion has been useful to others.
 
No, it was simply we only know of paella because it is part of our universe. If it was truly a separate thing, it would necessarily be outside our universe and there would be no way to get to it, no way to know whether or not it exists.
I did not claim that a paella is not part of our universe. The argument presented above is why Aristotle modified Plato’s theory of forms to the hylomorphic viewpoint, which does not propose that forms are separately-existing entities in some third realm.
I don’t remember any such concern, and now it’s my turn to be lost. What proportion of the world’s population, including one billion Chinese etc., even know of hylomorphism? If I stand at the entrance to the mall, even in Catholic Spain, I doubt more than a handful would have ever heard of it. Yet, you say, that overwhelming majority of humanity must somehow magically be assuming hylomorphism to some degree.

In your dreams. 😃
I doubt too many people have ever heard the term “hylomorphic” or “act/potency” or “form/matter” but I also don’t think that many people understand the terminology that vision scientists use. It would not follow that they do not really see anything since they have not formally considered/understand vision science. Everybody I know reasons by classifying things into particular types. They recognize that things of a particular type tend to have specific activities that flow from the type of thing that they are. They recognize that things really do undergo change without ceasing to be what they are, because there are non-essential elements of the thing that are capable of change. Even the scientists I work with do this. They implicitly assume hylomorphism when they reason about anything. It is a fact that we reason this way. So you either affirm that these thoughts correspond to reality or you deny it, in which case you cannot claim to know anything about reality.

Hylomorphism is a metaphysical theory that attempts to make this phenomenon come under explicit consideration of the intellect. Since good epistemology presupposes good metaphysics, there would be necessary hylomorphic implications on psychology.

What I don’t understand is, when something is unclear to you, you do not just ask for clarification. Instead you seem to resort to being utterly sarcastic and dismissive of everything that people write on the subject. This kind of behavior would not be tolerated in any other form of rational discourse, so I don’t know why it is appropriate for only this subject matter in particular.
 
You didn’t comment either 😉 on the research I linked on racism. That one piece of research serves to undermine every racist argument ever made, since it shows that racism is born out of irrational fear. Can hylomorphism match even that one piece of research in the benefits has it brought to humanity?
This is where I begin to wonder whether you understand some of the very basic building blocks of logic.

Even if this “one piece of research” did completely demonstrate that every instance of racism ever documented was “born out of ‘irrational’ fears,” the question could still be asked whether racism could ever be, in principle, a reasoned position or whether a group of humans may possibly exist ever that could be rationally feared. The presence or absence of fears does not establish the rational justifiability of racism, only the genesis of it. Whether racism is reaonable or not isn’t a question of measuring fear, it is a question of reason. Fear has really nothing to do with it.

“Do there possibly exist rational – as opposed to irrational – reasons to be racist?” is quite a different question from “Have racists up to now been so because of fear?”

You do understand what the genetic fallacy is, yes?
 
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