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inJESUS
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hamba2han, what an enlightning post. Do you believe that Allah sends people to hell because he feels like it or because people brought it upon themselves?
On the Day of Judgment, no one will enter Paradise without the Mercy of Allah, regardless of the amount of good deeds that he or she has done… and no one will enter the Hell-fire except by the Decree of Allah, regardless of the amount of sins that they may have commited during their time in this world.hamba2han, what an enlightning post. Do you believe that Allah sends people to hell because he feels like it or because people brought it upon themselves?
God loves everyone equally no matter what but if you do not accept that Jesus Christ is the Son of God and died on the cross for your sins you will not reach salvation.On the Day of Judgment, no one will enter Paradise without the Mercy of Allah, regardless of the amount of good deeds that he or she has done… and no one will enter the Hell-fire except by the Decree of Allah, regardless of the amount of sins that they may have commited during their time in this world.
In other words, it is NOT the creations who will determine their final destination in the Hereafter but rather, this will be the decision of their Creator alone i.e. the Master of the Day of Judgment.
Charlotte, could you remember and invite Jesus to your pork party?Yummy. We are having roast pork and crackling for Christmas Lunch. Can’t wait!
Yes, if any one needs worldly pleasures then that is a good and easy way to become a christian. They offer many things to the apostates.It doesn’t actually. Thousands of Muslims in Indonesia are coming to Christ. Their story is listed here freewebs.com/pleasegod/quranfatalerror.htm - read them you will find them enlightening. You may even become and enlightened apostate yourself - inshallah. Come to Christ and find out how wonderfully peaceful life can actually be. Jesus Christ is the only way to salvation. Peace.
He was at our Christmas Lunch. He was with us in Church too - as with every Christian family. I wish you had the love of Christ in you instead of resentment, criticism and hate towards us. Jesus always said we would be laughed at for following him and he is right. He also said to pray for those who persecute us because they don’t know any better. I guess he was right about that too. If only you could see it for yourself.Charlotte, could you remember and invite Jesus to your pork party?
It is more a case of feeling the love of Jesus Christ in yourself. When have any miracles/healings happened at a Mosque?Yes, if any one needs worldly pleasures then that is a good and easy way to become a christian. They offer many things to the apostates.
This is why Islam is the fastest growing religion in the USA, Europe and the World?It doesn’t actually. Thousands of Muslims in Indonesia are coming to Christ. Their story is listed here freewebs.com/pleasegod/quranfatalerror.htm - read them you will find them enlightening. You may even become and enlightened apostate yourself - inshallah. Come to Christ and find out how wonderfully peaceful life can actually be. Jesus Christ is the only way to salvation. Peace.
That is the biggest lie Muslims like to tell. Fact is Muslims are leaving in droves. Mostly in Africa, Indonesia and Iran. It may be rising in the US but 75% abandon it within 3 years (Scholars admit that here uk.youtube.com/watch?v=v8EC8-aVlrE)). Did you know that actually there are only 1.8 million Muslims in the US – that is 0.6% of the population and not the millions as claimed. It is mostly due to the birth rates not conversions that it is growing. So anyone saying it is the fastest growing religion is a liar. Most people who convert do so to get the guy/girl but when they realise they have been lied to they leave. I have met some really hardcore converts on internet boards in the past year and 90% of them have reverted to Christianity.This is why Islam is the fastest growing religion in the USA, Europe and the World?![]()
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Then why are the numbers growing in the fastest possible way?, it should be at an average speed if 75% of converts left Islam?That is the biggest lie Muslims like to tell. Fact is Muslims are leaving in droves. Mostly in Africa, Indonesia and Iran. It may be rising in the US but 75% abandon it within 3 years (Scholars admit that here uk.youtube.com/watch?v=v8EC8-aVlrE)). Did you know that actually there are only 1.8 million Muslims in the US – that is 0.6% of the population and not the millions as claimed. It is mostly due to the birth rates not conversions that it is growing. So anyone saying it is the fastest growing religion is a liar. Most people who convert do so to get the guy/girl but when they realise they have been lied to they leave. I have met some really hardcore converts on internet boards in the past year and 90% of them have reverted to Christianity.
One thing I find interesting about apostates is that when they find out the truth they hate the religion and build websites trying to tell Muslims the truth about it. That doesn’t happen with any other religion. Why do you think that is? I suppose you, like the others will say…they aren’t Muslims. Well, they were and they are trying to tell you. Please read this freewebs.com/pleasegod/
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“Let there be no compulsion in religion:
Truth stands out clear from error”
[Al-Qur’an 2:256]
They are not “growing in the fastest possible way”. Why do all muslims have to beat their chests about converts anyway? At least Christian work to protect reverts from retaliation. Even ex-muslim Christians in the UK are being attacked. We have several ex-muslims in our Church in London and the number is growing rapidly. They are still threatened by their former friends who ditched them for leaving islam. I am really proud of them for taking off the hijabs and admitting it - it took a lot of courage for them to do that.Then why are the numbers growing in the fastest possible way?, it should be at an average speed if 75% of converts left Islam?
Lol, what do you want me to do with a website?, I can make a similar website like that to propagating that Christianity is false?, and I could also claim that I am an ex-Christian on the website?
The fact is the other way round, those people are scared that the truth is coming their way.
Yes, it stops being unseparate since it did something the father didn’t do.you do not understand what am saying so I will ask it as question: if the eternal and unseperate Word took a human flesh, does it stop being the eternal and unseperate Word of the Father?
There is a large difference between a person and an attribute, you speak, so your words are an attribute of you, which is InJesus’ words, but that doesn’t mean that InJesus’ words is a full InJesus human who speaks, hears, sees,…etc. The first is our understanding of attributes, the second is yours, and I find this against monotheism.The point was rather that there can exist that which is eternal and uncreated that is not Allah as a person or in position, without compromising monotheism. As to “attribute” , it is clear that we do not share the same understanding that is why i was reluctant to use it and explained why we use “person” and not attribute. To you the Word is an attribute exactly like hearing and seeing.
Islam as well draws a distinction between the attributes and Allah.
the attributes of Allah with Him are not Him, nor are they other-than-Him because he cannot deny them nor can he make them the same as Him.
Al-Ash’ari
So what you are do you mean by saying that God creates and speaks by His Word and guides by His Spirit, when it is the case that all persons already do so?To us as well it is not easy to fully grasp what God revealed but He revealed that the Word is God, hearing and seeing and creating and guiding are attributes of God the Father, the Word and Holy Spirit , so creating, speaking, guiding, hearing, seeing are attributes of the Father, Son and Spirit.
Yes, he said that the word is father’s reason, but he said it was in his bowels and he begat him, a word not used with the spirit, so actually there is a difference. I don’t know where in the Quran or in the Sunna it says the examples you gave.He said the Word is the Father’s Reason so when he uses any human imagery, it must be understood in its theological context. Likewise, when Islam talks about the Word of Allah being present with Allah, we do not nit-pick the word “present” as if it means "someone else " but we understand the general theology and when Muslims say “may his soul rest in the bosom of Allah”, we do not nit-pick words.
this is a physical understanding of the word used…
Not necessarily that this the example I gave was what exactly happened, but I see a clear significance for the word beget, as you clearly differentiate between begetting and proceeding.This has nothing to do with a change in the nature of God since the Word IS God. The concept is about the position of the Word as God to the Father as God which in our creed is called God from God.
He is too late, and I see him the first one mention the gospel of John, and not because he cited one verse means that he knew the Gospel in the same way you do.Theophilus is explaining John. Do you think he is an authority and proof of the authenticity of John’s gospel and the belief that the Word is God and not the Arian heresy that the word is an attribute given to the created Jesus?
I am not sure where it says about chin, but our belief in God’s attributes that we believe in what God told about himself and what the Prophet(Peace be upon him) taught about God with neither illustration nor interpolation (misinterpreting them as sayin that God’s hands is His power for example) nor denial but we say that God has hands but not as our hands but in a way that matches with His exaltedness as God says in the Quran nothing resembles Him and He is the All Seeing All Hearing.and Islamic literature says Allah has a chin and face and hands and feet. Do you take them literaly like some Islamic schools of thought did?
When the Bible says that God’s word come out of His mouth, it tells that God has a mouth, otherwise it could have just said from Him or from His essence, as there is no need to say God’s mouth, this is an interpolation of scriptures.the Isaiah passage is talking about God sending His Word to do His Will ( an example of the Word as person/personified). This Word is not a creature or an attribute given to a creature, but the very Word of His mouth, of the Father’s essence, to do the Father’s Will as Whatever the Father does, His Word does likewise .
I don’t see a real significance in that verse, as it says that sitting on the right hand happened when he had by himself purged your sins not that this was the case from the beginning, and Theophilus himself said that the word was God’s helper:the word right arm in Biblical use is about authority and power.
Heb 1:3
3 Who being the brightness of his glory, and the express image of his person, and upholding all things by the word of his power, when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high.
Given? So God the Word didn’t have power until he was crucified then God gave it to Him?and you expect it to be a literal sitting down?
sitting down at the right hand means being given all authority and power.
Wrong, the Psalm says:the term God’s right hand is Messianic:
1 The Lord says to my Lord:
“Sit at my right hand
until I make your enemies
a footstool for your feet.” Psalm 110-Matthew 22:44
And as he was supposed to claim divinity and affirm it, why didn’t he correct the concept that the Jews understood, and give them the evidence that he is really God instead of leaving them stoning him? Do you think that if the Jews really knew that Jesus was God, they would have continued on stoning him when they had already knew what blasphemy against God means through the OT? Jesus didn’t affirm it at all, and what he quoted is an ultimate proof that he didn’t.you are confused. You mix everything with anything. You quoted a passage saying the Jews “thought” Jesus was claiming divinity so He "corrected " them, when in fact what they thought is correct and He affirmed it again that is why they still wanted to kill Him. Just because we differ in interpretation with the Jews because of Jesus does not mean that Jesus in the passage you quoted did not affirm His divinity.
Where did he affirm it? if he really wanted to affirm it, he wouldn’t have compared himself with mere men who were called gods and sons of God since all know that this verse didn’t mean that literally but figuratively and no one said that the judges are really God or the Son of God as you say about Jesus. If he really meant to affirm, he would have quoted something like Isaiah 9:6 or any other verse used by Christians to prove that the Messiah is God.this is your own ego which does not want to admit that Jesus was not correcting but affirming.
Ok, so when he forgave sins or says that he is the Lord of Sabbath, do you think that an ordinary man can say so?I can give an example of Jesus telling the thief at His right, “today you will be in paradise” since no ordinary human can tell another human that he will be surely in paradise today. Here Jesus is talking with His divine authority . Other than that, i don’t think anyone can explain how God does things.
you do not understand many things in both OT and NT and i believe John knew a bit more than you . John was affirming Jesus’ eternality and ontological oneness with the Father by connecting Him with the Wisdom tradition so John was affirming something and you fill in the blanks
As I said in the other post, the Shia are not as old as the Sunna. As for the Ebionites, they were Jewish Christians and there have been theories that refer them to James who wasn’t mentioned a lot in the NT although his great authority and even his epistle is not cited a lot by Christians as if there is some reason for Christians to hide his role. We can also see the epistles of Clement of Rome whom you call pseudo Clementine who nearly had the same age of the other epistle of Clement. And this is what reached us, but I am sure that what was hidden was much greater and we may see it one day, since as I said, the Roman Empire used to burn the books of all other sects and we didn’t know about most of them except the church fathers which are considered a biased source, so it cannot be a pure authority.it is not only about dates as the shia and Sunni are of equal history yet contradict each others in too many things. It is more about authority. Who were the Ebionites? to which church did they belong? did they belong to a church established by the apostle? who was their authority? were they appointed by the disciples? did they have the same belief?
And you were also split into many sects in the ancient and modern ages, and many of your early church fathers adopted heresies, and many of those whom you considered heretics were originally bishops of your churches.as to the last question, no, they had opposing beliefs and some of them were gnostics. Some of them denied the virgin birth and Jesus’ divinity and some believed matter is evil and an illusion created by an evil deity.
But he came back and said that the Word is the Spirit of God and His Wisdom:Theophilus refers to the Spirit as life-giving breath.
And Adam was sent down to Earth with his sin according to your belief and this was the normal case till Jesus came, so why did God wait all that time which constitutes the large portion of history (at least two third of it according to your flawed Bible account) and send Jesus after all that time?your analogy is flawed because Jesus is the only prophet to be born without a biological father when the normal cycle of reproduction has been established after the creation of Adam and Eve.
Jesus had already said that he is human and all his acts point out that he is human, so actually there was no need for him to be born of a virgin, he could have been born of nothing as Adam did and was still human, or as a natural birth as your god who put himself in a woman can put himself in a man so that when he knows his wife, she conceives her god.Did you expect Jesus to appear like a human out of nowhere? The authors who wrote the genealogies of Jesus through Joseph who isn’t even His biological father wrote them with the intention of stressing Jesus’ humanity, something that will be denied if Jesus appeared out of nowhere with no whatsoever link to any human or humanity .
No, Speaking in the cradle is a proof that he was born of a virgin not a reason. The reason was to be a sign for him being a prophet and a sign for the chastity of Lady Mary against the Jews which tells the high rank the Lady Mary is, besides, it’s a sensible evidence of God’s power.your answer seems to suggest that Jesus had to be born as such in order to speak in the cradle and defend Mary which is strange because the virgin birth is the reason for the accusation in the first place, according to Islam.
You were implying that you wanted an evidence from Jewish sources that Jews knew it, and that’s why I gave you that verse in Mat 27:50 to tell you that what you asked is not necessary to disprove it happened.i did not retreat, i always said it is a matter of faith because the virgin birth cannot have scientic or eyewitness evidence as it wasn’t a miracle done before people, for people, like other miracles.
Well, I agree with you that most varients are not that effective, but actually there are varients in the core of your beliefs and some of them were meant, see what I said in my homepage:something you still have to prove and which deserves another thread. Now refering to Bruce Metzger that Muslims love to quote, he says:
Of course, this is one of the evidence that verses from the Bible were lost.refering to Justin and Chrysostom?
Addition, replacement and elimination could be a reason for many of the difficulties of the Bible verses as the genealogy of Jesus where Joakim was omitted from the genealogy of Matthew, the pericrope adultera, Mark 16:9-20, the inconsistencies between church fathers about canonical and apocryphal writings, although it is supposed that it is one holy spirit who guides all and tells them the canonical books. Actually, it’s a very great subject, you can see what I wrote about it in my homepage.the only addition am aware of is the Johannine comma which i understand was written on the margin as a note which resulted in being written later as scripture, and when refering to the original document where it is not, it was removed.
Again see my site about that issue, and you’ll see that one of my main sources is your catholic encyclopedia not just the critics, and the fathers who rejected the Hebrews, the Revelation and 2 Peter, were they also 20th century critics?according to 20th century critics? The writings of men such as Polycarp, Clement of Rome, Irenaeus, Tertullian ecc provide an unbroken chain of evidence for the apostolicity and historical veracity of the NT.
Well, Justin and Chrysostom are considered an evidence since they lived at a very early age, you don’t even have a complete manuscript referring to that ageThe Church does not teach what both of them claimed so either they were wrong (Infallibility in concensus, not as individials) or as our Catholic link says : “a statement that rests on no positive evidence”
The case that Justin meant a real interpolation where the Jews omitted this verse, why would they omit it from a translation which they already consider as inaccurate? Besides, Trypho was convinced with what Justin said.Justin retaliates by charging the Jews with deliberate excision of passages favorable to Christianity.
Actually all your questions were answered and you are the one trying now to change the subject or just keep on saying it’s strange or I am not convinced or just repeat your arguments without refuting what I said. Your interpolation was made by men who changed God’s word according to their ego, while abrogation was made by God Himself with no man interference for many reasons, and this is a core difference between both cases.And yes i talk about chaos in Islam because it is a chaos surrounding this “preseved” book with different recitations, some being burnt, …
So we are supposed to go in a circle and start from the beginning, read what was said before especially your last statement and my answer.you still have not given me any evidence that the Arabs tried and failed, and you did not tell me who was the judge.
So what? The depth is considered a sea, the feminine wasn’t the depth but the darkness, the Quran literally says the darkness of a deep sea superimposed by waves and there are waves over these waves and cloud over them, so it talks about the darkness in a deep sea not on it for example if you wanted to say that this darkness is at the sea surface.the boldened part refers to the sea, not its depth, because the verb used is masculin whereas “its depth” in Arabic is feminine plural.
Well, you first need to prove that those who knew him and believed in him used to believe what you believe. And according to what you are saying, if every heretic came and some believed in him, then when people after him some believed in the heretic’s disciples, this means that these people believe it on a base, history and common sense?I’d take the testimony of these Jews who knew Jesus and what He did rather than the Jews who rely on their understanding of who the Messiah will be. Do you see this argument as faith? i’d call it faith, history and common sense.
Well, I have searched this statement and didn’t find it in a hadith or Sira book and I don’t know whether it has an Isnad or not except in some scattered forums. Besides even if considered true, I don’t see it telling that Waraqa was the one who taught the Prophet (Peace be upon him) the Quran as there are many things that disprove that and you can see my questions in the last post. Besides, the other narration after revelation which is proven true clearly tells that the Prophet (Peace be upon him) didn’t take anything from Waraqa otherwise there was no need to ask him, all what you gave (if true) doesn’t tell anything other than telling that Waraqa attended his wedding.this is an Islamic myth spread by Muslims to alienate Muhammad from anyone who could have taught him . Waraqa married Muhamad to Khadija, and said فنحنالحمد لله ألحمد لله الذي جعلنا كما ذكرت وفضلنا على ما عددت فنحن سادة العرب وقادتها . Meaning, thank God he favoured us for we are the masters of the Arabs and their leaders.
why, can you ask dead people? do you think the church fathers invented these heresies and then wrote books to refute them, for fun?
I don’t know, but the Quran didn’t tell us whether he died or not.is it a Shia belief that prophet Elijah did not die?
Didn’t it say:i wasn’t talking about the Quran. I said the gospel of Judas that you refered to does not back up the Quranic claim of non-crucifixion (as you think the aya means) because that gospel affirms it, but denies that Judas’ act of handing Jesus was a betrayal.
i don’t know if you can call the Shia ignorant but as authoritative as they were, being the Ahl Al Beit, they condemn what Uthman did as no one gave him the authority, according to them, to burn that which Allah has revealed in different dialects.
No, the dialects were just a difference in accents with no difference in meaning, while the recitations can give more than one meaning as I explained before.sorry for the confusion as i was refering to the differing recitations. Were they different because of dialect difference?
ok let me understand more please.
I don’t understand the first question, you mean if God ordered us in the Quran to follow the Sunna? If so, then the answer is yes as the Quran orders us a lot to follow the Prophet (Peace be upon him) and obey him. As for the second question, I am not sure if a hadith contradicts the Quran, as any apparent contradiction can be solved.1-Allah already asks you to follow the sunna no?
2-the hadith is usually considered second to the Quran and if a hadith does indeed contradict it, even if authentic, you cannot reject it?