Why Sola Scriptura fails

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What always gets me is that how can people decide what is considered inspired Scripture after the Church established by Christ already made a ruling on the matter. Wait…wait…I know…just throw out or place on a lower level the books that do not agree with your theology. :banghead:
But that is why CAF exists…to explain and defend…😛
 
I’m not here to pick apart your faith. But to say that Catholics never have swayed from perfect morals and gospel isn’t accurate from our vantage point - the reformation didn’t start for nothing. The Catholic arguments seems to be that “that wasn’t the Church” but our viewpoint differed - as the messenger was excommunicated by none-other than the Pope.
The Church has sinners Ben…and we’ve had some Popes … very few…that stood out as sinners. But… on faith and morals, the Church can not error as it is protected by Christ himself. Not trying to pick apart your faith either…just showing the some inconsistency between what you say and do. 😊
Even in simple things - my Catholic friends tend to get teary eyed at first seeing our kneelers around the alter rail.
Well Catholics do a lot of kneeling at Mass…it’s a good thing to kneel.
When I say we follow Tradition, I’m saying that we’re doing our best in these troubled times . We often fail.
I didn’t say that or even think that …but it’s a big admission for a LCMS member to say. Stubborn Germans you tend to be. :yup:

🙂
 
… It turns out you merely plagiarized that which you took from another source.
Mea culpa. (I’m usually much better at identifying my sources; I guess I just became a bit shy over being accused of taking everything out of context.) You could still use that, here, if you wish.

I apologize for any inconvenience this may have caused you.
 
Simka, is there any biblical support for using the Bible, and the Bible only, to gain the knowledge of God? Where in the Bible does it say “Sola Scriptura?” I do not see any place where it is even implied that we should use the Bible only.
 
I apologize for any inconvenience this may have caused you.
Apology accepted, although it caused me no inconvenience at all.

It’s just important to always make it clear when what one writes are not his own words, to give credit to the actual author.
 
Simka, is there any biblical support for using the Bible, and the Bible only, to gain the knowledge of God? Where in the Bible does it say “Sola Scriptura?” I do not see any place where it is even implied that we should use the Bible only.
No, not that I am aware of; in general terms, the practice came from a recognition of Scripture as the Inspired (therefore infallible) Word of God, and the authority of Scripture derived from that. It was common practice to rely on that authority in teaching the faith, and in setting doctrine. If there is no higher authority than God’s word, then any other resource that agreed with Scripture was a duplication; and other resource that disagreed was rejected.

But knowledge involves more than just doctrinal belief. There is no suggestion, so far as I am aware, that all knowledge about every aspect of the faith is contained in Scripture. That certainly is not a SS position.
 
No, not that I am aware of; in general terms, the practice came from a recognition of Scripture as the Inspired (therefore infallible) Word of God, and the authority of Scripture derived from that. It was common practice to rely on that authority in teaching the faith, and in setting doctrine. If there is no higher authority than God’s word, then any other resource that agreed with Scripture was a duplication; and other resource that disagreed was rejected.

But knowledge involves more than just doctrinal belief. There is no suggestion, so far as I am aware, that all knowledge about every aspect of the faith is contained in Scripture. That certainly is not a SS position.
It takes an infallible interpreter to interpret "the inspired (therefore infallible) Word of God. Nothing else will do. Spare us the guesswork please.
 
No, not that I am aware of; in general terms, the practice came from a recognition of Scripture as the Inspired (therefore infallible) Word of God,
If you could please explain what you mean by this practice of “recognition of Scripture”.

How was it that the early Christians did this?
 
There is no suggestion, so far as I am aware, that all knowledge about every aspect of the faith is contained in Scripture. That certainly is not a SS position.
Well, that is not your SS position. As has been illustrated quite remarkably here, there are lots of definitions of what the SS position is.

You seem to be cognizant of the fact that SS is never mentioned, ever, in the Bible, therefore don’t go by the SS definition that says “all knowledge about every aspect of the faith is contained in Scripture.”

Kudos to you for acknowledging this!

But as for your claim above, well, it has been shown otherwise. There are indeed some Protestant folks who do claim that all knowledge about every aspect of the faith is contained in Scripture. 🤷
 
It takes an infallible interpreter to interpret "the inspired (therefore infallible) Word of God. Nothing else will do. Spare us the guesswork please.
Guesswork? What am I guessing at? Sorry, Tomster, I don’t understand the meaning of your criticism.

The OT was recognized as Inspired long before Christ and His Apostles walked the earth. The interpretations were accomplished by religious leaders through the ages. No doubt some of them were “Inspired” but not every passage in Scripture was considered so mysterious as to defy understanding without an “infallible” interpreter.

God’s inspiration of the Scriptures that emerged during the Apostolic era were similarly recognized. And today you and I can read Paul’s letters, for example (well, the translations, anyway), and interpret the vast majority of what he says, without putting ourselves at risk. (Some of it is more mysterious than the rest.)

I’m not infallible. I can make mistakes … but that shouldn’t preclude my prayerful reading, study, and learning. And I always welcome the insight and correction of an inspired teacher in helping me to better understand what Scripture means by what it says.
Teaching … what a gift that is!
 
God’s inspiration of the Scriptures that emerged during the Apostolic era were similarly recognized.
How?

How did the early Christians “recognize” Hebrews as inspired? Based on what? :confused:
 
There are indeed some Protestant folks who do claim that all knowledge about every aspect of the faith is contained in Scripture.
You may be right; I am not aware of any. And I am only prepared to defend what I understand was the earliest articulation of the SS position, that “Scripture contains all knowledge necessary for salvation and holy living.”
 
You may be right; I am not aware of any. And I am only prepared to defend what I understand was the earliest articulation of the SS position, that “Scripture contains all knowledge necessary for salvation and holy living.”
It would be advantageous to you if you did not claim to have the only def of SS. You have no authority to declare this to be so. You cannot speak for the millions of Protestant folks who hold to a different definition of SS.

Also, could you please provide your source that demonstrates that that your articulation is the earliest?
 
Yes, “sola” can be translated as “only” or “alone”. The title “sola Scriptura” stands for and represents a principle, or a practice, or a teaching, or a position, that “only Scripture” or “Scripture alone” is the final authority in refuting or validating a doctrine of the church.

The principle of SS does NOT mean, as you suggest above, that the church should hold to Scripture alone, and nothing else. That it a misrepresentation of SS.

SS has no issue with tradition. The 16th century advocates of SS welcomed church traditions, and acknowledged them as valuable, worth holding to, providing quality instruction in Christian living. The only proviso they wanted the church to retain was that decisions based on tradition should be subject to Scriptural oversight … that Scripture alone was the final arbiter on doctrinal matters.
Simka:

Again please tell us who in the early church made an official declaration as to what is the correct definition of SS? Where is this “original” version you have mentioned numerous times?

BTW: In regards to Gregory of Nyssa, you posted:

Taken in context, their views are consistent with Gregory of Nyssa, who wrote: “We make the Holy Scriptures the rule and the measure of every tenet; we necessarily fix our eyes upon that, and approve that alone which may be made to harmonize with the intention of those writings.”)

Please try to answer the following and let us examine if you truly are presenting his words in their proper context.

1.Did Nyssa say those words because he was advocating or defending SS?
2 Tell me what did he mean by:…***harmonize with the intention of those writings. ***What writings?
3. Why did Nyssa say those words and to whom were they directed at?
4. What was going on at the time,which compellled him to convey such words?
5.What reasons did he have to defend Scripture in such a fashion in his above statement?
6. Kindly show me where Nyssa or any ECF ever say or teach: Scripture over everything else?
7., Please present one ECF who exhaustively writes on defending,promoting or justifies ONLY-Scripture and nothing else to defend the faith?
 
I’m not infallible. I can make mistakes … but that shouldn’t preclude my prayerful reading, study, and learning. And I always welcome the insight and correction of an inspired teacher in helping me to better understand what Scripture means by what it says.
Teaching … what a gift that is!
But Simka…how do you know your “inspired teacher” is teaching faith as handed down from the Apostles? How do you know he is not teaching you error?

Let me cite and give you the example of St. Paul:

Galatians 1:18 Then after three years I went up to Jerusalem to visit Cephas and remained with him fifteen days.
Galatians 2:2 I went in response to a revelation and, meeting privately with those esteemed as leaders, I presented to them the gospel that I preach among the Gentiles. I wanted to be sure I was not running and had not been running my race in vain.
Paul had a direct revelation from Christ. Yet, from the two passages above, he goes to visit Cephas/Peter and submits himself to Peter. Gal 2: 2 states his purpose…to present his gospel/message to make sure it is in line with the Apostles and what they were handed down from Christ.

Your inspired teacher…how does he follow the example of St. Paul above? Who did he get assurance from that what he is teaching you is from the Apostles?
 
No, not that I am aware of; in general terms, the practice came from a recognition of Scripture as the Inspired (therefore infallible) Word of God, and the authority of Scripture derived from that. It was common practice to rely on that authority in teaching the faith, and in setting doctrine.

Let me make a correction here…that is not how doctrine is settled…it is settled by bishops sitting in council, starting at the Jerusalem council in Acts 15.
If there is no higher authority than God’s word, then any other resource that agreed with Scripture was a duplication; and other resource that disagreed was rejected.
 
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