Why was the TLM Mass forbidden, but now allowed? I do not want to start an arguement, but it makes no sense to me. It seems like the Vatican banned it long enough so that there could be a generation of Priest that don’t know how to do it. Now they allow it as if it was never banned but very few Priest can do it. Someone please make me understand. I was born in the 80s and have no idea about any of this. I did look at some newspaper stories from back in the 70s/80s and they all say the TLM was banned. Here is one.
news.google.com/newspapers?id=KXpQAAAAIBAJ&sjid=AxIEAAAAIBAJ&pg=6509,1196170&dq=marcel+lefebvre+latin+mass&hl=en
You – and I hardly blame you, people for decades have done so – are confusing two separate issues: (1) whether the old Mass was abrogated, and (2) whether people were allowed to say it. Just because a missal has not been abrogated does not mean that any priest is allowed to say it. You can see this when you consider that, for instance, the liturgy of the Melkite Catholic rite is totally valid, licit, and current, yet the priest at your local (Roman-rite) church is forbidden to say it. This does not make us ask, “Why is the Melkite Rite banned at my church?!” We simply understand that the Church has desired to restrict the use of that liturgy to priests of that rite, for various reasons which I’m sure are perfectly good. It is not that “the Melkite Rite is banned,” it is merely that your priest is not allowed to celebrate in the Melkite Rite.
Likewise, when restrictions on the TLM were in place, it was not that “the old rite was banned,” but simply that priests were not permitted to celebrate it: the Church was restricting the old liturgy in an attempt to promote the shift to the reformed liturgy. This, I hope, points toward what the Holy Father is getting at when he says the TLM was never abrogated. He does
not mean – which would have come as a complete surprise to everyone at the time – that any priest was allowed to celebrate it at will. What he does mean is that in those days the Church was not forbidding (i.e. abolishing) the TLM itself, it was forbidding (i.e. restricting)
saying the TLM. That this is the case is proven by the very fact that there were, almost from the beginning, indults to say the TLM.
The difference is of course subtle – I’m not at all sure I’ve done a good job of explaining it here – and it is in most practical cases irrelevant, which is why so many people have ignored it and just said “The TLM was banned” and so on.