Why would anyone want to be a Mormon or Jehovah Witnesses? Part 2

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Continued from last post by SteveVH

Originally Posted by mathonihah
The bit about gay marriages was a joke; but the fact remains that polygamy has been practiced throughout history. The Bible is full of it. The antediluvians practiced it; the post-diluvians practiced it. The patriarchs practiced it. The Jews practiced it. The Law of Moses permitted it. Some of Jesus’ disciples would have practiced it. And the earliest Christians would have practiced it.

Just one more comment. Why in the world did Jesus give this teaching, concerning God’s intentions and will since the beginning of creation, if, in fact, it was god’s will that man practice polygamy:

Mark 10:6-8: “But from the beginning of the creation, God ‘made them male and female.’ 'For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, ‘and the two shall become one flesh’; so then they are no longer two, but one flesh.”

God’s plan from the beginning was that two become one flesh, not three or four or 33 becoming one flesh. If you will look a little closer at Scripture you will see that each of those who practiced polygamy were punished for doing so. God allowed it, but die not will it, just as he allowed divorce because of the hardness of their hearts. He allows people to murder each other, but that does not mean it is his will.

Because their god and smith had to restore the church when smith got caught with his pants down. Other than that, polygamy is found nowhere in the bible or ancient texts.
 
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mathonihah:
When prophets and patriarchs did it, that means that God sanctioned it.
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No it doesn’t.
But if you want a direct sanction, here is one:
"And Nathan said to David, Thou art the man. Thus saith the Lord God of Israel, I anointed thee king over Israel, and I delivered thee out of the hand of Saul;
“And I gave thee thy master’s house, and thy master’s wives into thy bosom, and gave thee the house of Israel and of Judah; and if that had been too little, I would moreover have given unto thee such and such things.” (2 Sam. 12:7–8)
I says that David’s wives were given to him by God. That is a direct sanction. There are more that can be found if you really wanted to look for them.
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It says nothing of “David’s wives”. The wives of Saul were turned over to David’s care, it says nothing of David marrying Saul’s wives.

Also raises questions about your views of women.
 
Hey fellow posters, we have 2 threads in which we broke the 1,000 post mark. 👍
 
RebeccaJ said:
Originally Posted by mathonihah
When prophets and patriarchs did it, that means that God sanctioned it.
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Yes it does. When a great Patriarch like Abraham practices polygamy, it must be assumed that it was done with the sanction of the Lord. Abraham had many wives and concubines, not just Hagar the Egyptian:

“And Abraham gave all that he had unto Isaac.
“But unto the sons of the concubines, which Abraham had, Abraham gave gifts, and sent them away from Isaac his son, while he yet lived, eastward, unto the east country.” (Gen. 25:5–6)

It is inconceivable that Abraham would have done that without the approval of the Lord. If the Lord had disapproved of him dong that, he would have told him so.
Originally Posted by mathonihah:
But if you want a direct sanction, here is one:
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"And Nathan said to David, Thou art the man. Thus saith the Lord God of Israel, I anointed thee king over Israel, and I delivered thee out of the hand of Saul;
“And I gave thee thy master’s house, and thy master’s wives into thy bosom, and gave thee the house of Israel and of Judah; and if that had been too little, I would moreover have given unto thee such and such things.” (2 Sam. 12:7–8)
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I says that David’s wives were given to him by God. That is a direct sanction. There are more that can be found if you really wanted to look for them.
Click to expand...
It says nothing of “David’s wives”. The wives of Saul were turned over to David’s care, it says nothing of David marrying Saul’s wives.
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LOL! That is a good one. It says, “I gave thee … thy master’s wives into thy bosom”. That means he married them. And if that is not good enough, here is another example:

After Moses had married an Ethiopian woman (polygamously, since he already had a wife, who was the daughter of Jethro), his brother Aaron and sister Miriam disapproved, and murmured against him; but the Lord chastened them in these words:

“And the Lord spake suddenly unto Moses, and unto Aaron, and unto Miriam, Come out ye three unto the tabernacle of the congregation. And they three came out.
“And the Lord came down in the pillar of the cloud, and stood in the door of the tabernacle, and called Aaron and Miriam: and they both came forth.
“And he said, Hear now my words: If there be a prophet among you, I the Lord will make myself known unto him in a vision, and will speak unto him in a dream.
“My servant Moses is not so, who is faithful in all mine house.
“With him will I speak mouth to mouth, even apparently, and not in dark speeches; and the similitude of the Lord shall he behold: wherefore then were ye not afraid to speak against my servant Moses?
“And the anger of the Lord was kindled against them; and he departed.” (Num. 12:4–9)

Therefore so far we have found two examples of God directly sanctioning and approving polygamy, without there being one instance of condemning it. And there are still more examples that could be found.
Also raises questions about your views of women.
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LOL! What kind of questions? :whistle:
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Address the scriptures about ONE wife. And then tell me how many of the OT commandments you follow
 
mathonihah said:
Polygamy is found, and approved by God. See my previous post.
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There’s a difference between allowing something and approving of something. God allowed polygamy, doesn’t mean He approves it. Just like He allows divorce, doesn’t approve of it though.
 
kimg901 said:
Joseph F. Smith and family. WOW. So according to smith, only selected men could practice polygamy? If its Gods revelation why only some and not all?
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Simple mathematics. The ratio of men to women is approx 1:1. If you have more than one wife someone else has no wife. I believe Fulton Sheen used the phrase “wife hog”.
 
mathonihah said:
Polygamy is found, and approved by God. See my previous post.
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Address the scriptures about ONE wife. And then tell me how many of the OT commandments you follow

Don’t be afraid. We all know you can’t do either one.
 
mathonihah said:
It is inconceivable that Abraham would have done that without the approval of the Lord. If the Lord had disapproved of him dong that, he would have told him so.
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Why is it inconceivable that Abraham would do something the Lord would disapprove of? Where is is said that Abraham was any less a sinner than any other man, did Abraham not need Christ?
 
zaffiroborant said:
Why is it inconceivable that Abraham would do something the Lord would disapprove of? Where is is said that Abraham was any less a sinner than any other man, did Abraham not need Christ?
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Wouldn’t it be interesting to apply his same standard to latter-day prophets?

:newidea:
 
LivingWaters7 said:
Wouldn’t it be interesting to apply his same standard to latter-day prophets?

:newidea:
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Depends. I have never said prophets should be perfect in what they do. BUT, they should NEVER teach false or confusing doctrine and they should not cheat people and they should not break the law.

They should not cover up sexual misconduct with new laws approving polygamy, they should not discriminate against black until it becomes financially dangerous, they should not fire guns into crowds, tear down printing presses they do not like, and try in all they do to bring glory on themselves like an egomaniac (appoint himself as mayor, appoint himself as general, run for president, etc),

Finally, he should not use his position as a way to have financial or material gain (telling people God told him that his people should build him a house, etc.)
 
mathonihah said:
Yes it does. When a great Patriarch like Abraham practices polygamy, it must be assumed that it was done with the sanction of the Lord. Abraham had many wives and concubines, not just Hagar the Egyptian:

“And Abraham gave all that he had unto Isaac.
“But unto the sons of the concubines, which Abraham had, Abraham gave gifts, and sent them away from Isaac his son, while he yet lived, eastward, unto the east country.” (Gen. 25:5–6)

It is inconceivable that Abraham would have done that without the approval of the Lord. If the Lord had disapproved of him dong that, he would have told him so.
[/quotie]

Abraham repented for not trusting God and begged for God to be merciful to the son born from his mistrust, to Hagar.

God is merciful. You shouldn’t confuse mercy with indulgence.
LOL! That is a good one. It says, "I gave thee … thy master’s wives into thy bosom
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mtolympus said:
👍
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I notice you were afraid to address this:

Depends. I have never said prophets should be perfect in what they do. BUT, they should NEVER teach false or confusing doctrine and they should not cheat people and they should not break the law.

They should not cover up sexual misconduct with new laws approving polygamy, they should not discriminate against black until it becomes financially dangerous, they should not fire guns into crowds, tear down printing presses they do not like, and try in all they do to bring glory on themselves like an egomaniac (appoint himself as mayor, appoint himself as general, run for president, etc),

Finally, he should not use his position as a way to have financial or material gain (telling people God told him that his people should build him a house, etc.)
 
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