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You are not going to find that doctrine in the Bible.Hell is a choice. Those who go to Hell choose to go there.
You are not going to find that doctrine in the Bible.Hell is a choice. Those who go to Hell choose to go there.
From where in the Bible do you get this notion?I also know that God does not send you to hell, you send yourself through your choices.
Oh no, people who hate God usually want to exist and don’t dislike existence per se, just that they’d rather exist on their own terms than God’s and follow their own path rather than His.People who hate god hate their existence therefore our souls should be destroyed. The point is it would be more merciful.
It’s a good question and I think the answer although somewhat of a mystery to me too, has to do with who we are and Who God Is. God does not owe us anything. We all deserve hell. But in His goodness He has offered a Way for us to have a relationship with Him. God does not need us. We need Him.I was thinking about hell and something doesn’t make sense to me. I know God loves you more than anyone could ever imagine, more than your parents, more than anybody. I also know that God does not send you to hell, you send yourself through your choices. But what I don’t get is this:
For example, if I screwed up a lot in my life and was left in a suffering position, no matter what I did I know my parents would be there to take me back. God loves you more than your parents, so if He saw you weeping, begging and pleading for mercy once in hell, I don’t see how He could just turning around and leave people to suffer ETERNALLY. God has the power to help us, I don’t understand how He could possibly just watch people suffer in hell.
Also, if one does go to heaven, we can assume they are compassionate, so, if heaven is supposed to be a place of complete happiness, I don’t see how a loving person could ever be truly happy in heaven knowing so many are suffering and will be suffering forever.
Can someone try to explain this to me?
Thank you for reading all that!
start off by re reading the entire thread slowlyFrom where in the Bible do you get this notion?
Originally Posted by GandalfTheWhite
Hell is a choice. Those who go to Hell choose to go there.
Do you mean that people who go to hell don’t actively choose eternal hellish fire? Or do you mean they don’t choose to reject God, which results in hell?You are not going to find that doctrine in the Bible.
He did.Why would God not save people he loves from hell?
I lean on Scripture for my understanding of who goes to Hell . . .Do you mean that people who go to hell don’t actively choose eternal hellish fire? Or do you mean they don’t choose to reject God, which results in hell?
* fitted - Greek: katartizo- to complete thoroughly; fit; frame; arrange; prepare
Would you reconcile that statement, and your understanding of those Scriptures in light of:1 Timothy 2:3-4 This is good, and pleases** God our Savior, who wants all men to be saved** and to come to a knowledge of the truth.Why would God send people to Hell, because it pleases Him.
The English word ‘all’ does not mean every man, woman, and child that ever lived.Would you reconcile that statement, and your understanding of those Scriptures in light of:1 Timothy 2:3-4 This is good, and pleases** God our Savior, who wants all men to be saved** and to come to a knowledge of the truth.
I was thinking about hell and something doesn’t make sense to me. I know God loves you more than anyone could ever imagine, more than your parents, more than anybody. I also know that God does not send you to hell, you send yourself through your choices. But what I don’t get is this:
For example, if I screwed up a lot in my life and was left in a suffering position, no matter what I did I know my parents would be there to take me back. God loves you more than your parents, so if He saw you weeping, begging and pleading for mercy once in hell, I don’t see how He could just turning around and leave people to suffer ETERNALLY. God has the power to help us, I don’t understand how He could possibly just watch people suffer in hell.
Also, if one does go to heaven, we can assume they are compassionate, so, if heaven is supposed to be a place of complete happiness, I don’t see how a loving person could ever be truly happy in heaven knowing so many are suffering and will be suffering forever.
Can someone try to explain this to me?
Thank you for reading all that!
But why shouldn’t God give them what they want? They don’t want to look on His face, so why can’t he let them do what they want?
God accepts you back any time in this life, just repent, confess your sins and He will be there for you.[stina;3003691]I was thinking about hell and something doesn’t make sense to me. I know God loves you more than anyone could ever imagine, more than your parents, more than anybody. I also know that God does not send you to hell, you send yourself through your choices. But what I don’t get is this:
For example, if I screwed up a lot in my life and was left in a suffering position, no matter what I did I know my parents would be there to take me back. God loves you more than your parents, so if He saw you weeping, begging and pleading for mercy once in hell, I don’t see how He could just turning around and leave people to suffer ETERNALLY. God has the power to help us, I don’t understand how He could possibly just watch people suffer in hell.![]()
What everyone in this world really wants is justice served, yet it is applied in this world sometimes in a correctly ordered way, and yet many times in an incorrectly disordered way so that what seems to some to be “justice” is actually unjust; e.g. the right to “choose.”Also, if one does go to heaven, we can assume they are compassionate, so, if heaven is supposed to be a place of complete happiness, I don’t see how a loving person could ever be truly happy in heaven knowing so many are suffering and will be suffering forever.
Can someone try to explain this to me?
Thank you for reading all that!
Yes, that’s good preaching. Thomistic theology says all recieve sufficient grace, but not all receive efficacious grace and we need efficacious grace[tabcom;3021725]The English word ‘all’ does not mean every man, woman, and child that ever lived.
“A TIPTOE THROUGH TULIP” By JAMES AKIN posted on catholic.com.
"Aquinas stated, “Christ’s passion was not only a sufficient but a superabundant atonement for the sins of the human race; according to 1 John 2:2, ‘He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only, but also for those of the whole world.’” [ST III:48:2].
This is not to say there is no sense in which limitation may be ascribed to the atonement. While the grace it provided is sufficient to pay for the sins of all men, this grace is not made efficacious (put into effect) in the case of everyone. One may say that although the sufficiency of the atonement is not limited, its efficiency is limited. This is something everyone who believes in hell must acknowledge because, if the atonement was made efficacious for everyone, then no one would end up in hell."
Sufficient -
Being as much as is needed.
Efficacious -
Producing or capable of producing a desired effect.
Well, I would disagree. Not every person in China, Iran, or North Korea, deep South America, has heard of Jesus Christ, so you can’t say all people have heard of Jesus.Lets examine this notion of what is sufficient with what is efficacious. Isn’t the life\death\resurrection of Jesus known by all men? Yes. In other words, Jesus’ sacrifice was sufficient for all men to know who Jesus was. Atheist\Buddist\Hindos\Islamist\Christia ns all know who Jesus was.
Yes, Christ’s sacrifice was objectively sufficient yet in order for it to acheive its desired effects in our lives as it takes our will too.However, not all men are going to come to a knowledge of Christ. The bible teachs that only a few are. Jesus’ resurrection produced the desired effect within His elect family, i.e. conforming to the image of Christ.
The English word ‘all’ does not mean every man, woman, and child that ever lived.
That begs the question…since “all” can also mean “all,” why doesn’t it in this verse? In order to assume that God does not will the salvation of all, it would help to counter with a verse demonstrating that He wills the condemnation of some or wills some to do evil. Your earlier verses do not show this.
Take Jude 1:4 for example. As you showed, the King James translates the verse “men crept in unawares, who were before of old ordained to this condemnation” (emphasis yours)
However, the Greek word translated “ordained” there is in reference to having been written about. Jude is specific about where this was written in v. 14. It is from the apocryphal book of Enoch 2:1.
Where it reads “ordained” in your Bible should be understood that it was simply “foreseen in writing” that there would be opponents to the Word (v. 4). Most translations incorporate some form of “writing” in this verse.
God does not will evil. He permits freedom.
A point of clarification – Paul was not addressing non-believers in his letter to theI think perhaps what you are missing here is the natural moral law put into every mans heart which Paul speaks of in Romans 2:14-16, “the gospel written on their hearts.” That’s why even those who have never heard of Jesus Christ can still be saved if they follow what grace they have received (Luke 12:48).
What’s that got to do with the natural moral law?A point of clarification – Paul was not addressing non-believers in his letter to the
Romans. In his opening salutation he addresses his audience as
Romans 1:6 among whom you also are the called of Jesus Christ;
Precisely.God forbid !
That would amount to the lie that “not thy will, but Mine, be done.” No created will can take priority over that of God - it would enthrone sinful creatures on the Throne of God: which would be downright idolatry, even (maybe)satanolatry.
Our entire happiness lies in being conformed to Christ - not in His ceasing to be Our Lord & Our God. That sort of thing is nothing short of self-deification, which is the lie of lies: because we are creatures, & not Our Creator. If we falsify our position toward God, everything else is falsified too, for everything else depends on our being rightly related to God.![]()
In return, I would ask, 'What’s the natural moral law have to do with the gospel being written on the hearts of the believers – only? Le’ts back up for a moment . . .With respects to your statement . . .What’s that got to do with the natural moral law?
I was simply providing the context as to who Paul was addressing, that is, the gospel is written on the hearts of the believers. Not on the hearts of the vessels of wrath fitted for destruction that he mentions in Rom 9:23.I think perhaps what you are missing here is the natural moral law put into every mans heart which Paul speaks of in Romans 2:14-16, “the gospel written on their hearts.”