D
dronald
Guest
With Tatian writing the long ending in his 40’s within his Diatessaron, which he would have copied from an already existing Gospel of Mark (pushing to perhaps the early to mid 2nd century). And Irenaeus who was a very devout Christian and knew Polycarp, who knew John quotes it from a text that dates from the year 180 (again, Ireanaeus would have been pulling this text from another document that would have dated earlier) how can we deny that it ought to be called authentic?
I understand the arguments against calling it authentic, but they never seem to take into question the strength behind the Tatian/Irenaeus arguments. Had Irenaeus really existed and had he written Adversus Haereses and had he really known Polycarp who had really known John; how can this be denied?
I understand the arguments against calling it authentic, but they never seem to take into question the strength behind the Tatian/Irenaeus arguments. Had Irenaeus really existed and had he written Adversus Haereses and had he really known Polycarp who had really known John; how can this be denied?