Some nurses would be middle class in most peoples’ reckoning, but it would depend on the nurse’s education and experience. A nurse who went through a two year RN program and works in a nursing home? Probably not. A degree RN with postgraduate work qualifying her to be a nurse anaesthetist? Most people would say she is definitely on the upper income scale and in the upper part of the middle class in terms of earnings. An NP? Yes. A degree RN with significant experience in cardiac surgery assistance? Yes. A PRN charge nurse who works regularly? Probably, due to the very high pay for anyone qualified to do it, and if the nurse has established a “circuit” of regular clients.
Totally subjectively, I would say that a person who does not have sufficient food, clothing or shelter is “poor”. But I can’t assign an income level to that because I have known people whose income was less than $10,000 who had everything they reasonably wanted, and lived decently in basic terms. Most, however, would be considered “poor” if their income was that low and they did not receive some form of assistance. But a person earning no more than that would most likely be receiving some form of assistance.
Most would consider the upper 5% to be “wealthy”. But I don’t, necessarily, because I know people (mostly farmers) who are that “wealthy” in terms of land, but only earn a cornbread living doing what they’re doing in terms of discretionary income.
I have also known of small business owners and farmers who have an AGI over $250,000 now and then, but are barely holding on due to the costs of their business and their business debt.
Composition of assets varies greatly. Is a Californian whose house is worth $2 million but who has no other significant assets as “wealthy” as a Mississippian who has $2 million in cash, stocks and bonds and a house worth $80,000? The former would probably not think of himself as “wealthy”, but the latter would. The ability of the latter to do discretionary things would be considerably greater than the former.
Looking at one source, it appears that until 2007 the relative wealth of individuals in the U.S. did not change very much over several decades. After 2007, it did, but everybody’s wealth declined as well.
www2.ucsc.edu/whorulesamerica/power/wealth.html
But perhaps the thing that is the most troubling about the complaints people have about the distribution of wealth is that they never draw a cause/effect relationship, though they vociferously claim it. Am I poor because John Kerry is rich, or am I poor for reasons that have nothing to do with John Kerry or anybody like him? Personally, I know too many self-made wealthy and too many poor to think one man’s wealth has anything at all to do with another man’s poverty.
There is one additional thing that gives me considerable pause if I am ever tempted to think that accumulation of wealth has anything to do with the fortunes of others. Since 1929, the percentage of national income going to capital relative to that of “labor+ paid non-labor” has remained almost constant at a 1/3-2/3 ratio. The percentage going to capital is at its lowest during full employment, but increases during high unemployment, though in actual dollars it moves up for both during full employment and declines for both during high unemployment.
Employment is actually the causative and moving metric in determining how well off people are, not the relative distribution of wealth.
But it’s also true that the share of “paid non-labor” comes entirely from “labor’s share”. In other words, when transfer payments go up as a percentage of national income, the percentage of national income going to working labor goes down.
Just for the record, I consider Obama’s “care for the poor” and “care for the middle class” a total sham. He has done nothing for either and has brought harm to both.
Sorry to shorten your post, but I had to.