Will there be a modern translation of the Latin Vulgate?

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Hello everyone. I have heard rumors that there will be a modern translation of the Latin Vulgate. Is this true? Also, what will the translation method be? Will it be a literal translation, dynamic equivalence translation, or a paraphrase? Thanks!
 
Hello everyone. I have heard rumors that there will be a modern translation of the Latin Vulgate. Is this true? Also, what will the translation method be? Will it be a literal translation, dynamic equivalence translation, or a paraphrase? Thanks!
 
my translation is fro the Latin Vulgate (Clementine version):
Catholic Public Domain Version
sacredbible.org/

It is a fairly literal translation, about 80% completed.
It is not (yet) approved by the Church.
The OT is translated in the light of the NT, and both are translated in the light of Catholic teaching.
The Challoner version was used as a guide.
 
Hello everyone. I have heard rumors that there will be a modern translation of the Latin Vulgate. Is this true? Also, what will the translation method be? Will it be a literal translation, dynamic equivalence translation, or a paraphrase? Thanks!
What would be the point of translating from Greek into Latin and then into English? Why not just miss out the middle section and go straight from Greek (or Hebrew) to English?
 
Because sometimes Latin conveys the original sense of what the writers said than Greek does.

When that is the case Latin translated into English is more accurate than Greek translated into English.

The “Middle Man” is without doctrinal error.

The people who want to get rid of that middle man in textual renderings that refer to doctrine are enemies of the Catholic Church.

There is a sizeable group of “modern” so called “scholars” who are absolutely terrified at the possibility of the Nova vulgata being translated into english.

Everyday they fight with all their heart and might to keep that from happening.

Why?

Because it will expose them for what they are–enemies of the truth!
 
And how do you know the original sense so you can judge the Latin to be superior to the Greek?

JJ
 
Don’t forget though that when St. Jerome translated the bible from the original languages to Latin he was using sources that have been lost in time. Or so the arguement goes. He had materials that we do not. This would be reflected in the Latin translations that would be missing in many modern translations.
 
Hi Red,

It is by no means obvious that St. Jerome had better sources than we have. Collecting one manuscript of each of the books of the bible was in itself no mean task. Collecting many and then deciding which were best on purely internal and personal criteria was a task worthy of a genius, which St. Jerome was. But in St. Jerome’s time the scientific methods for determining the “genealogy” of manuscripts and establishing a critical text did not exist.

Nevertheless the Vulgate is precious not only for its interpretation of the Sacred Text but, together with the Septuagint and other early translations (Vetus Latina, Syriac etc.) it is used by translators as a “witness” on manuscripts that may have disappeared. Today’s translators do not slavishly go by one source but use all the sources available to try and establish a version as close as possible to the original, which, of course, is no longer extent.

Verbum
 
What would be the point of translating from Greek into Latin and then into English? Why not just miss out the middle section and go straight from Greek (or Hebrew) to English?
See, my problem with this argument is that the bibles we have are a a bit of a mishmash. Some verses are translated according to the massoretic text, some from the dead sea scrolls, some arrange passages a bit closer to the Septuagint order, and the critical NT shows influence from three different manuscript families.

The diversity of ancient versions is startling. Some add passages, some omit passages, some shed light on eachother.

With this being the situation, when someone asks why translate from a translation, I say why not?

Fine, keep the critical edition at the pulpit and in the study group. Even tag it as the only volume that can rightfully be called a “The Bible”, if measures that draconian are necessary. By why must this possibly preclude also having an official translation of the Vulgate? An official translation of the Septuagint? The Peshitta, Ge’ez, Armenian, Slavonic and Old Latin? Having those kinds of resources, hand in hand with good Catholic commentary, can only be a blessing.

Less is not more. More is more.
 
See, my problem with this argument is that the bibles we have are a a bit of a mishmash. Some verses are translated according to the massoretic text, some from the dead sea scrolls, some arrange passages a bit closer to the Septuagint order, and the critical NT shows influence from three different manuscript families.

The diversity of ancient versions is startling. Some add passages, some omit passages, some shed light on eachother.

With this being the situation, when someone asks why translate from a translation, I say why not?

Fine, keep the critical edition at the pulpit and in the study group. Even tag it as the only volume that can rightfully be called a “The Bible”, if measures that draconian are necessary. By why must this possibly preclude also having an official translation of the Vulgate? An official translation of the Septuagint? The Peshitta, Ge’ez, Armenian, Slavonic and Old Latin? Having those kinds of resources, hand in hand with good Catholic commentary, can only be a blessing.

Less is not more. More is more.
That’s news to me but interesting. What is your source to show that any Bibles have texts translated from the Dead Sea scrolls?
 
Because sometimes Latin conveys the original sense of what the writers said than Greek does.

When that is the case Latin translated into English is more accurate than Greek translated into English.
No it isn’t. The words of the scriptures are the words of God. The scriptures were written in Greek not Latin.
The “Middle Man” is without doctrinal error.
No it isn’t.
The people who want to get rid of that middle man in textual renderings that refer to doctrine are enemies of the Catholic Church.
I guess you have made me your enemy because I reject your proposition. Latin is inferior to Greek in the study of scripture and I will go further and say it is inferior to Syriac as well.
 
Scholars have (finally) learned today that critical attempts to deduce the “original” text is elusive at best, if not downright impossible. And if I may propose more radically, the attempt to derive the “original” text is worthless from the point of view of human salvation. The way the Churches have read Scripture through the centuries, with all its divergences and recensions, have more value and importance than the critically reconstructed “original” text. Theologically speaking, God’s inspiration need not be limited only to the original text (and modern biblical scholarship showing the development and elaboration of the text tells us emphatically that inspiration is not restricted only to the original author).

Thus the Vulgate (and Nova Vulgata) have value because it represents how the Latin Church have read (and continues to read) Scripture through the centuries. Similarly, the Septuagint and the Byzantine texts represent how the Eastern Churches have read (and continues to read) Scripture, and ditto for the Peshitta etc. The living reading of Scripture by the Church, the Body of Christ, is what turns the dead words of a book into the life-giving Word of God.
 
Scholars have (finally) learned today that critical attempts to deduce the “original” text is elusive at best, if not downright impossible. And if I may propose more radically, the attempt to derive the “original” text is worthless from the point of view of human salvation. The way the Churches have read Scripture through the centuries, with all its divergences and recensions, have more value and importance than the critically reconstructed “original” text. Theologically speaking, God’s inspiration need not be limited only to the original text (and modern biblical scholarship showing the development and elaboration of the text tells us emphatically that inspiration is not restricted only to the original author).
I’ll say more. Even if we had the original manuscripts, later manuscripts have certain advantages over the original. The text of the Bible evolves through centuries of editing and translation and comparison of different translations. In this way, certain meanings present in the original wording, but obscure there, become clearer and more easily comprehended.

Inspiration is limited to the original manuscripts. But Providence and grace apply to the development of the text through the centuries. The development of the Latin scriptural tradition, esp. culminating in the Clementine Vulgate, is the best example of this because the Latin was in use in the Church for many centuries. An understanding of the text developed in the Living Tradition and influences the editing of the text, the choice between different variants, the extent of influence from manuscripts in other languages.
Thus the Vulgate (and Nova Vulgata) have value because it represents how the Latin Church have read (and continues to read) Scripture through the centuries. Similarly, the Septuagint and the Byzantine texts represent how the Eastern Churches have read (and continues to read) Scripture, and ditto for the Peshitta etc. The living reading of Scripture by the Church, the Body of Christ, is what turns the dead words of a book into the life-giving Word of God.
The Nova Vulgata is a paraphrase translation of the Hebrew and Greek. It frequently abandons the Latin scriptural tradition altogether. It does not represent the Living Tradition.

I think it is good to have many different translations from many different scriptural traditions, sets of manuscripts, translation approaches, etc.
 
The Nova Vulgata is a paraphrase translation of the Hebrew and Greek. It frequently abandons the Latin scriptural tradition altogether. It does not represent the Living Tradition.
I don’t agree with this assertion. The Nova Vulgata is the result of a dialogue between the Latin scriptural tradition and biblical scholarship basing on the different manuscripts. The Nova Vulgata is the present official Latin Bible of the Latin Church presently and truly represents how the the Church of Rome reads Scripture according to her perennial and Holy Tradition. Why should the work of the Holy Spirit be limited to only a period of time in the past? Our God works through history, but he is not fixated in history.
 
That’s news to me but interesting. What is your source to show that any Bibles have texts translated from the Dead Sea scrolls?
If you have a New American Bible, just read the Old Testament Introduction.
 
If you have a New American Bible, just read the Old Testament Introduction.
I have that but it does not say any parts of Bibles have been translated using the Dead Sea Scrolls.
The discovery of the Dead Sea Scrolls simply confirmed that scriptural text over the centuries had been largely copied correctly.
 
What would be the point of translating from Greek into Latin and then into English? Why not just miss out the middle section and go straight from Greek (or Hebrew) to English?
Very simple.
The ancient Greek is lost, and the only good witness thereoff is the Old Latin, upon which, at least, the Gospels are based, with only minor alterations by Jerome, to comply with what he thought were the best Greek.
As for the other books I cannot vouch, but
Matthew was composed in Aramaic, but that is lost, if it was ever written, and more than the stock-in-trade of a story-teller. Whether the first classical language was Greek or Latin is an open question. Ancient fragments have been found in all three languages, but the earliest complete Gospel post-dates the Latin of Carthage by some hundred years.
John and Luke were without doubt penned in Greek, but as with Matthew, no complete Greek versions predate the Carthaginian Latin.
There is no good reason to believe that Mark was not composed in Latin, as it was aimed at Roman slaves, who were mainly from North Africa, and all spoke Latin.
 
I have that but it does not say any parts of Bibles have been translated using the Dead Sea Scrolls.
The discovery of the Dead Sea Scrolls simply confirmed that scriptural text over the centuries had been largely copied correctly.
Ok, I just realized that the preface actually is online, I’ll quote it. 7th Paragraph:

“The Massoretic text of 1 and 2 Samuel has in numerous instances been corrected by the more ancient manuscripts Samuel a, b, and c from Cave 4 of Qumran, with the aid of important evidence from the Septuagint in both its oldest form and its Lucianic recension. Fragments of the lost Book of Tobit in Aramaic and in Hebrew, recovered from Cave 4 of Qumran, are in substantial agreement with the Sinaiticus Greek recension used for the translation of this book.”

The bit about the DSS largely confirming the present text is only partially accurate. If the scrolls were just more carbon copies, there wouldn’t be a need to make corrections based on them. The scrolls recovered at Qumran did verify the antiquity of quite a bit of the biblical text, but divergences also exist - sometimes agreeing with the Septuagint against the Massoretic, sometimes the reverse, and sometimes going it’s own way. Here’s a chart that unfortunately only gives one side of the argument (I don’t know of one that shows where the DSS agree with the Massoretic.)
 
[sign]Originally Posted by thistle
I have that but it does not say any parts of Bibles have been translated using the Dead Sea Scrolls.
The discovery of the Dead Sea Scrolls simply confirmed that scriptural text over the centuries had been largely copied correctly.[/sign]
Ok, I just realized that the preface actually is online, I’ll quote it. 7th Paragraph:

“The Massoretic text of 1 and 2 Samuel has in numerous instances been corrected by the more ancient manuscripts Samuel a, b, and c from Cave 4 of Qumran, with the aid of important evidence from the Septuagint in both its oldest form and its Lucianic recension. Fragments of the lost Book of Tobit in Aramaic and in Hebrew, recovered from Cave 4 of Qumran, are in substantial agreement with the Sinaiticus Greek recension used for the translation of this book.”

The bit about the DSS largely confirming the present text is only partially accurate. If the scrolls were just more carbon copies, there wouldn’t be a need to make corrections based on them. The scrolls recovered at Qumran did verify the antiquity of quite a bit of the biblical text, but divergences also exist - sometimes agreeing with the Septuagint against the Massoretic, sometimes the reverse, and sometimes going it’s own way. Here’s a chart that unfortunately only gives one side of the argument (I don’t know of one that shows where the DSS agree with the Massoretic.)
As I read the upper paragraph, and see that it is as quoted from the reference, it is clear, that though the translation might not be from the DSS, the DSS were consulted to judge between LXX and Massoretic.
Thus the DSS influenced the translation.
Thus they were part of the source material.
The DSS, in general seem to verify that LXX is superior to Massoretic, so here Greek is a better witness than the Hebrew, which is an artificial reconstruction.
As fo the NT, with the exception of the Gospels, I am content with Greek superiority, for want of better evidence, which I have not sought.
The Gospels however, we have, in Jerome’s own words, that he took the best Old Latin as his primary source, and only altered it where it differed in substance from the best Greek.
We have in the Codex Fuldensis Gospel, according to Victor of Capua, an ancient Latin harmonized Gospel, which good witnesses attribute to Ammonius of Alexandria, (d AD 220), so is a potential witness of the Latin of Carthage.
Picking the CF Gospel apart into its constituent parts, about 85% of both Matthew and John can be recovered, and about 50% of Luke. Only a tiny amount of Mark is recoverable.
It is however clear from these recovered texts, that both Jerome and Ammonius were using the same source material, for the differences between these two versions of the Gospels is tiny, even to the point that the assertion has been made that Jerome’s Gospels were used in the harmony. However, analizing the differences, where they occur, makes it quite clear that this is not the case, and thus the CF Gospel gives us a glimpse of the Old Latin before Jerome modified it.
This Old Latin, we can safely date to between AD 198 when Victorius Africanus Papa died, having commissioned the translation, Victorius originated in Carthage), and the witnessed appearance of these Gospels in Carthage in AD 200.
There are no reliably witnessed earlier complete Gospels than these in any language. The earliest Greek a hundred years later, and seems to be derived from this Old Latin, much as Jerome’s Gospels were later derived from the Greek, ie, they were ‘corrected’ using the Greek.
 
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