Well it goes something like this:
The pill this woman had a doctor prescribed prescription for is obviously legal in the US. The pharmacy she went to obviously had the pill in stock.
The employee crossed the line and refused to supply the woman with her doctor prescribed prescription because he feels it is unnecessary/immoral.
To digitonomy, I do not believe the basic flow of goods in America is necessarily changed by supply of said goods, so, no, that was not my argument. I was trying to show Tom that this was a deliberate act of escalation by the woman. It’s not as if the woman was in a state of desparation and the pharmacist was revoking her only resource for pills to save her life. We’re talking about a very routine prescription that can be filled almost anywhere. Doctors keep little baskets of the stuff to hand out for free.
I guess if in my line of work we are allowed to refuse to assist any client or to sell any client merchandise of any kind for any reason…reasons that we don’t even have to divulge, why is a basic pharmacist unable to refuse filling this prescription?
But, then I found out I was lagging behind on the discussion, because it has already been duly noted that the law upheld the pharmacist’s right to refuse to fill the prescription. His error was in not advising the woman further.
I feel that’s a pretty moot point itself. Like she was clueless on how to get to the next Wallybob’s or SavewhileuShop or Planned Barrenhood to get these things?
Again, the two in this case were meant for each other.
Does anyone know if the prescription to be filled was even for contraceptive reasons? I know a lot of doctors push these pills for a myriad of symptoms.