V
Verdanty
Guest
Very often I hear the term “relativist” be thrown about, usually as a slur that morality cannot be situational or depend on other factors. There is always an objective right and an objective wrong, based upon the unchanging will of God.
I don’t see how this can logically follow from the scriptures. Certainly, in this view all morality is based upon the decrees and will of the all-powerful creator but there I see a problem; the creator himself changes his mind about what is or isn’t morally acceptable.
Let’s take Mosaic Law for instance. Previously it was acceptable for a man to take more than one wife, but since Jesus revealed himself it must now be one woman per man. I have heard it said that this was because God made special allowances as he revealed himself across time; he never liked polygamy but permitted it for a time because humans were weak and were not ready for the fullness of revelation.
This runs into a problem. Polygamy is a sin today that automatically consigns one to hell as adultery, since he can only have one valid wife, is a sin. Jacob and other patriarchs were guilty of this, however they are also considered saints who were taken from the bosom of Abraham to Heaven after Christ.
Ergo, what today will consign oneself to hell back then was not an obstacle to a heavenly reward. God has transformed a morally neutral action into a mortal sin and holds modern day men to a far higher standard; understandable but if that isn’t relativistic: what is?
Can anyone please explain this for me?
I don’t see how this can logically follow from the scriptures. Certainly, in this view all morality is based upon the decrees and will of the all-powerful creator but there I see a problem; the creator himself changes his mind about what is or isn’t morally acceptable.
Let’s take Mosaic Law for instance. Previously it was acceptable for a man to take more than one wife, but since Jesus revealed himself it must now be one woman per man. I have heard it said that this was because God made special allowances as he revealed himself across time; he never liked polygamy but permitted it for a time because humans were weak and were not ready for the fullness of revelation.
This runs into a problem. Polygamy is a sin today that automatically consigns one to hell as adultery, since he can only have one valid wife, is a sin. Jacob and other patriarchs were guilty of this, however they are also considered saints who were taken from the bosom of Abraham to Heaven after Christ.
Ergo, what today will consign oneself to hell back then was not an obstacle to a heavenly reward. God has transformed a morally neutral action into a mortal sin and holds modern day men to a far higher standard; understandable but if that isn’t relativistic: what is?
Can anyone please explain this for me?