K
Kristopher
Guest
For the sake of arguing the opposite view: it is unreasonable for any pope, as it has been unreasonable of any pope, to state that no woman, now and forever, should ever be ordained a priestess, why?a quote from the USCCB about women’s ordination.
The ordination of men only is categorically a teaching of concern only to faith. What is this word “faith”? What is this word “moral”? Faith is trust in God’s existence. Trust in God’s existence may never be contingent upon gender: this would contradict the meaning of the Catholic Church in the word “universal” and its meaning: that all people, at all times, and at all places may always come to know God, and to be holy, to become saints and therefore, neither any male, nor any female is ever at anytime excluded on the basis of gender from being one among the faithful.
What is this word “moral”? Morality is simply doing what is right.
No matter to what extent the Sacrament of Holy Orders is for women only, whether we reference either our Catholic traditions, or our Judaic traditions of the Old Testament—what can we accept about this as a teaching: can we accept it as a teaching concerning either faith, or morals, or both faith and morals?
While I have to admit, while arguing this opposite view: that I am not knowledgeable enough about the substance as it concerns both the Sacrament of Holy Orders, and those traditions pertaining to it; I am, nonetheless, able to reason broadly, that we cannot teach others the following: it is wrong for women to bless others, (the primary function of a priest, or hypothetically the priestess), through the means of grace that are the seven sacraments of our Roman Rite. Therefore, what infallibility could possibly pertain to morality as a basis of exclusion, with respect to women being ordained priestesses?
It would seem that the controversy of women being ordained priestesses is relevant only to faith.
On what basis may anyone reason, that women infallibly must be declared impossible to ordain as priestesses, with respect to faith? Perhaps there is none. How then can I, or you, argue on the basis of faith, that women must never be ordained as priestesses? The only answer that I may give you at this time; is this: “infallibility” as a word must be interpreted in accord with what is contained within the Catechism of the Catholic Church (CCC)—there is nothing within our faith, that may be contradicted by science. An integral element of science is logic. Within logic the conjunction “and” is interpreted in the following manner: where two elements of an argument are joined by the word “and”, both those elements must be true in order for the entire statement to be true, (PLEASE: keep in mind that I am arguing this point from an introductory to logic course point-of-view, which I passed with a grade of “C”.), otherwise the entire statement is false—no matter that one element was God’s truth and therefore, since a declaration of infallibility is contingent upon its pronouncement with respect, not to either faith, or morals, but to both faith, and morals—it is, consequently, fallacious to reason that women on the basis of faith, and morals must never be ordained priestesses, because as stated earlier: there is nothing immoral about a woman being ordained a priestess; however true it may be that as a matter of faith, women must never be ordained priestesses, which to my understanding is a genuine article of faith, because it does require trust, that the Holy Spirit, infallibly, allowed for the writing both of the Old Testament, and the New Testament to be written, without any reference to any woman being ordained a priestess, among Jews; that is “legitimately”, which must be used somewhat loosely as a consequence of the fact, that Jesus himself; formally was never ordained a priest, which would of lowered his stature: being the Messiah a more superior position of authority, than the inferior position of being a priest, which does necessitate, that a priest imitate Jesus.
Most sincerely,
Kristopher
P.S. It is of course, right to reason that scripture alone is not a teaching of Catholicism, but of Protestantism and therefore, any evidence to the exclusion of Holy Scripture demonstrative of a fact, that women within Judaism once were ordained priestesses, would substantiate any arguement, that the ordination of women as priestesses must no longer be excluded, as an article of faith. Women have been ministers. Women have been prophetesses. Have women been priestesses?
NOTE: I posted this at another thread; now closed. I will read: what is posted above in the quote, which began this thread. My arguement is unrealted either to superiority, or to inferiority of males, of females.
I just read: the issue is neither one of morality, nor of immorality, but a lack of authority, not contingent upon both faith and morals.