Would it be Possible to "Roll Back" or "Develop" V1's Papal Infallibility or is it Part of the Unchanging "Deposit of Faith"?

  • Thread starter Thread starter Vonsalza
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
40.png
steve-b:
the Tradition refers to sending encyclicals among the world’s bishops to ask their opinion on the advisability of issuing an ex cathedra teaching.
Apparently Pius IX and Pius XII thought so:

http://www.papalencyclicals.net/pius09/p9ubipr2.htm

And

http://www.papalencyclicals.net/pius12/p12deipa.htm
Thanks for the answer.

When you said

the Tradition refers to sending encyclicals among the world’s bishops to ask their opinion on the advisability of issuing an ex cathedra teaching.

yet both examples show the Church repeatedly requesting the pope(s) to do, to declare, a teaching.
 
Last edited:
both examples show the Church repeatedly requesting the pope(s) to do, to declare, a teaching.
Yes, those are “[bishop’s] opinion(s) on the advisability of issuing an ex cathedra teaching.”
 
40.png
steve-b:
both examples show the Church repeatedly requesting the pope(s) to do, to declare, a teaching.
Yes, those are “[bishop’s] opinion(s) on the advisability of issuing an ex cathedra teaching.”
You’re probably spinning your wheels with ole Stevie, over there. I can provide proper references, if you’d like. 😆
 
40.png
steve-b:
both examples show the Church repeatedly requesting the pope(s) to do, to declare, a teaching.
Yes, those are “[bishop’s] opinion(s) on the advisability of issuing an ex cathedra teaching.”
Yet the popes in the example didn’t send out an encyclical to ask their opinion on the advisability of issuing an infallible statement. If anything, it’s an example of the popes putting the breaks on making an infallible statement.
 
Last edited:
Yet the popes in the example didn’t send out an encyclical to ask their opinion on the advisability of issuing an infallible statement. If anything, it’s an example of the popes putting the breaks on making an infallible statement.
Exactly. I cited these encyclicals as evidence that the Church practice on infallibility has been moving away from a dogmatic pronouncement by the Pope toward a joint affirmation of the world’s bishops. “Putting on the brakes” or “rollback” are not terms I would use, but those terms are reaching for the meaning of what has been happening.

Also, when I talked about “the advisability of issuing an ex cathedra teaching” I did not mean it generically. Pius IX asked about issuing a declaration on IC, and Pius XII asked about the Assumption. The subtitle of Pius XII’s encyclical is “Should We Define the Assumption?” The Popes took the responses to these encyclicals as the basis for their ex cathedra teachings.
 
I think that’s an excellent example of the thinking of most rational and cautious Catholics who look at Papal Infallibility and wish to downplay the absolutely awesome opportunity for abuse that it creates. And to be sure, we widely recognize that the abuse of the power, or even just frequent invocation would be highly destructive to the Church.

But unfortunately, Steve-B is right about one thing;
“when the Roman Pontiff speaks EX CATHEDRA… …such definitions of the Roman Pontiff are of themselves, and not by the consent of the Church, irreformable.”
In short, a pope can’t over-step his bounds because he doesn’t have any. At least, none in the temporal sense. If the rest of the Church catholic disagrees, tough! per Vatican 1.

For groups like The Old Catholics and the Eastern Orthodox, the only men that have no bounds are either dead or in heaven. As such, infallibility rests in the lap of Christ and none other (at least singularly).

I started this thread to get Catholic perspectives on what I felt was the most pertinent question in reuniting the Church under one banner. And it seems that the answers to the two questions are “probably not” and “probably”. Schism is set in stone.

Catholics claim the papacy as one of the key sources of unity. From where I stand as a student of Christian history, it appears that there is no greater or more frequent source of division in Christianity than the papacy. And it seems there’s no real reason to expect that to change.

Thanks for the replies!
 
Last edited:
If the rest of the Church catholic disagrees, tough! per Vatican 1.
To these definitions the assent of the Church can never be wanting, on account of the activity of that same Holy Spirit, by which the whole flock of Christ is preserved and progresses in unity of faith.
Per Vatican 2
This is a complex situation, getting complexier.

You believe the Spirit is leading the Church, as do I. It is that Spirit that will lead us to unity, past the thickets of problems we cannot figure out.
 
40.png
steve-b:
Yet the popes in the example didn’t send out an encyclical to ask their opinion on the advisability of issuing an infallible statement. If anything, it’s an example of the popes putting the breaks on making an infallible statement.
Exactly. I cited these encyclicals as evidence that the Church practice on infallibility has been moving away from a dogmatic pronouncement by the Pope toward a joint affirmation of the world’s bishops. “Putting on the brakes” or “rollback” are not terms I would use, but those terms are reaching for the meaning of what has been happening.
Re: the underlined, how so?
40.png
Dovekin:
Also, when I talked about “the advisability of issuing an ex cathedra teaching” I did not mean it generically. Pius IX asked about issuing a declaration on IC, and Pius XII asked about the Assumption. The subtitle of Pius XII’s encyclical is “Should We Define the Assumption?” The Popes took the responses to these encyclicals as the basis for their ex cathedra teachings.
Re: Vat I , and the definition of papal infallibility, I gave back a few posts ago shows the direction.

I haven’t seen directions from Ecumenical councils oppose or reverse course of a previous E council. If you have an example, please post it.
 
Last edited:
It’s never phrased as “opposition” or “reversal”.

“Development” is the word Catholic scholars use.

I thought we all already knew that…
 
40.png
Dovekin:
the Church practice on infallibility has been moving away from a dogmatic pronouncement by the Pope toward a joint affirmation of the world’s bishops.
the underlined text isn’t describing “development”.

From Vat I

“we teach and define as a divinely revealed dogma that when the Roman Pontiff speaks EX CATHEDRA, that is, when, in the exercise of his office as shepherd and teacher of all Christians, in virtue of his supreme apostolic authority, he defines a doctrine concerning faith or morals to be held by the whole Church, he possesses, by the divine assistance promised to him in blessed Peter, that infallibility which the divine Redeemer willed his Church to enjoy in defining doctrine concerning faith or morals. Therefore, such definitions of the Roman Pontiff are of themselves, and not by the consent of the Church, irreformable.”
 
Last edited:
In one understanding, the Pope on his own can issue teachings that are binding on everyone. “If the rest of the Church catholic disagrees, tough! per Vatican 1”

This understanding is not what V1 intended, as evidenced by their identification of the primary infallibility, that of the Church, among other things.

The same dogmatic pronouncement can instead be understood as an affirmation by the world’s bishops of the faith of the Church. This, I believe, is what was intended at V1. The encyclicals cited show that this was the understanding of the popes who wrote them.
 
To be Frank, I hope you’re right. Really.

There was so much initial concern over V1 and “where infallibility stops” that the German chancellor set about reinforcing alliances in case the Pope ever wished to call for the conquest of a nation as a matter of “faith and morals”.

Thankfully, the chancellor’s concerns seem to be a bit over the top, but the problem remains that there is no real mechanism to place a check on the Pope aside from the holy spirit.

And judging by the conduct of several popes in history, the spirit seems very slow to restrain free moral agency.

If there was a requirement levied of an affirmational quorum of bishops set in place (made possible by modern technology) in the instance of infallible decrees, that would be an enormous move toward progress.

After all, how could one argue that the spirit rightly led the Pope but not most bishops of the church?

But it seems that there are plenty of Catholics that would resist this tooth-and-nail as a violation of V1. The question becomes “which schism would be worse” instead of “how do we avoid schism”.

Interesting matter. Thanks for your (name removed by moderator)ut.
 
Ok, so then the modern catholic understanding of the papacy not directly present in the scriptures then. It requires deduction, which is an interpretive act.

Very good. This is some progress.
Actually, we are not. You are fishing for cube critters so your tv dinners can be presented as square meals (thought I throw in more muck into the exchange).

What I have stated is that the Unfolding of Christ’s Design about Salvation and the Church is found right from Scriptures. The deduction is only required to put together Scriptures and what I’ve stated–which runs counter to your claims.
Hmmm… I don’t see where it says the majority of the body of bishops were Arians…
Let’s try “piece work:”
Calling themselves Lucianists and Collucianists, they developed his adoptionist and subordinationist tendencies into a full heresy (Harkins 1967, 1057, 1058)."
With this background Arius struggled with the question of the Trinity. His teaching in Alexandria was the following: “Personal distinctions were not eternally present within the nature of God. . .
The Son was not therefore to be identified with the Godhead, He was only God in a derivative sense, and since there was once when he did not exist He could not be eternal. Arius stressed the subordination of the Logos to such an extent as to affirm His creaturehood, to deny His eternity and to assert His capacity for change and suffering (Ward 1955, 41).”…
The General Council was well attended by the major sees of the Eastern Empire. Also some Western Bishops were present. Because of old age and sickness Pope Sylvester did not attend but sent two papal legates. …
“This Homoean victory was confirmed and imposed on the whole Church by the Council of Constantinople in the following year” which condemned the terms homoousios, homoousios and anomoios (Ward 1955, 57). It seemed that the Arians had triumphed over the Nicaea creed.
I can’t explain it any clearer!
Our problem, obviously, is over what “first” means in terms of power he enjoys exclusive from other apostles.

First among equals? A primacy of honor? Sure!
Exactly because you (you, the East and the non-Catholics) seek autonomy. You want to divine the mind of God through man’s understanding even and in spite of Christ Direct Delegation: 'Peter, do you Love Me more than these? Feed My Lamb (the Founding Church), Feed My Sheep (the Universal Church). No one else was given the Keys to the Kingdom and no one else was Delegated the Obligation of Nourishing (leading and maintaining) the Body of Christ: the Church.
Your problem seems to be your biased “deduction” of material not present in the scriptures
Yes, the biased understanding that I Follow Christ not man nor any “feel good” theology. So when Christ Calls Peter the Rock on which He Builds the Church and when He Delegates His Authority passing onto Cephas the Obligation of the Office, I don’t second guess Him nor seek venues that allow me to circumvent His Commands.

Maran atha!

Angel
 
The Pope is sometimes called “Patriarch of the West.” Perhaps it could be agreed that the full, Catholic-style exercise of his authority applies to the Latin West, but that he ought not to reach into other patriarchs’ territories unless he is asked to help resolve a dispute?
You mean like the Obama administration vote to have “Christians” practice their “Faith” in the parish/religious buildings and in their homes as long as they agree with secular values and support the culture of death?

Maran atha!

Angel
 
Right. As long as he provides the appropriate flags indicating “Simon Says (Infallibly)”, Catholics the world-over must submit fully to absolutely whatever proceeds next from his lips.
Yeah, I stopped drinking coffee, eating meat, eating fish, gambling, etc. etc. etc. every time a Pope made an infallible claim… oh wait; that’s non-Catholics and those of the East that keep realigning the does and don’ts… my bad!

Maran atha!

Angel
 
In one understanding, the Pope on his own can issue teachings that are binding on everyone. “If the rest of the Church catholic disagrees, tough! per Vatican 1”
What’s highlighted, is obviously NOT what Vat I states. What I’m responding to is your mischaracterizations
40.png
Dovekin:
This understanding is not what V1 intended, as evidenced by their identification of the primary infallibility, that of the Church, among other things.

The same dogmatic pronouncement can instead be understood as an affirmation by the world’s bishops of the faith of the Church. This, I believe, is what was intended at V1. The encyclicals cited show that this was the understanding of the popes who wrote them.
sessions 1-4 of VAT I

in particular may I suggest reading all 4 chapters of session 4, not just ch 4 only
Intratext Vat I session 4 ch’s 1-4
 
Last edited:
After all, how could one argue that the spirit rightly led the Pope but not most bishops of the church?
Jesus made this clear when He stated that the tree is known by its fruit!

Maran atha!

Angel
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top