I think that you people are SERIOUS prudes to not allow sexual satisfaction within a marriage. Btw, here is a post that I found on an advice site:
I have a question that is of a rather sensitive nature but nonetheless I still need some help with.
Sometimes during intercourse with my wife I use a vibrator to enhance her pleasure. The other piece of information that you will need to know in order to answer my question is that all of our sexual acts end in a way that is open to life.
My two questions are:
(1.) I want to know if I am comitting a sin by utlizing the vibrator to stimulate my wife to orgasm.
I haven’t been able to find anything that deals w/ this issue directly but I seem to keep finding that a husband and wife may do whatever they wish provided that what they do is open to life. If this is true than it would seem that what I am doing is not sinful. Since I don’t have anything much to base whether what I am doing is sinful or not I thought that you would certainly be a good starting point.
(2.) I can’t seem to find any literature on this issue and I am hoping that you can recommend some orthodox books that deal with this issue in particular and the marital embrace and what is and what isn’t permitted. I don’t in any way mean to disrespect your answer to my first question but I would like to learn more about this matter.
Thank you,
Tom
Code:
ANSWER by John-Paul Ignatius, OLSM on January 9, 2004 WARNING!! This question and answer is of a mature nature. Parental discretion is advised.
Dear Tom:
There are no books that I am aware of that gets into the details that you are asking for. Maybe one of our readers will know of one.
However, I do know the answer to the question. I have discussed this type of question with Father Most, who was arguably the top moral theologian in the United States. He as passed on now; may he rest in peace.
In terms of foreplay and afterplay most anything that is mutually agreed upon is permitted morally. It is proper and efficacious to enjoy the marital embrace. God intends a couple to enjoy the sexual faculty. That which can enhance the sexual experience, deepening the bond between husband and wife, and which is not a psychological disorder (such as inflicting pain and suffering), is permissible by mutual consent.
The climax of the man, however, must always be vaginal.
Thus the direct answer to your question, the use of a vibrator to bring your wife to orgasm either before or after coitus, or both, is permissible. This is especially the case if the wife did not achieve orgasm during coitus. In fact, not only is it permissible, but your wife will thank you.
God Bless,
Bro. Ignatius Mary