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1holycatholic
Guest
Why use a term like communion (i.e. common union) when that’s not the case?The 39 Articles are not accepted uniformly throughout the Anglican Communion.
Why use a term like communion (i.e. common union) when that’s not the case?The 39 Articles are not accepted uniformly throughout the Anglican Communion.
My point was about the acceptability of the translation to the Catholic Church.I never said the CC is moving in the direction of Protestantism.
Actually, I may be in error to claim the RSV and NRSV are “Protestant” Bibles. Though used by Protestants, these translations are really more “ecumenical,” and that is probably one of the reasons they were so readily adopted by the Catholic Church. The point is I think we are making progress.
I know. England wasn’t pleased with Wycliffe, nor was Pope Martin V, who, more than 40 years after Wycliffe’s death, ordered Wycliffe’s bones to be dug up, burned, and scatter in the river. (And people say the Catholic Church hasn’t changed.) Not that England’s kings were any more merciful to dissenters in conflict with their beliefs-Protestant or Catholic in nature.
I am well aware of the Catholic stance on the “primacy of Peter,” which is a different belief from that of Protestants, Anglicans, and Orthodox Christians.
Peace,
Anna
Do groups in communion need to have precisly the same way of expressing things, or even the same beliefs on all issues? One might just as well ask how all parts of the CC can be one Church when some allow married priests and others don’t, or how one individual can accept say, the Fatima revelations while another doesn’t.Why use a term like communion (i.e. common union) when that’s not the case?
The beliefs about married priests (i.e. doctrine about Holy Matrimony and Holy Orders) are the same throughout the Catholic Church.Do groups in communion need to have precisly the same way of expressing things, or even the same beliefs on all issues? One might just as well ask how all parts of the CC can be one Church when some allow married priests and others don’t, or how one individual can accept say, the Fatima revelations while another doesn’t.
Some things are essential, others are not. Even by a fairly conservative view, I think the articles fall under “not”.
You are rather missing the point. Why don’t I use a different example - the articles are like an old Vatican document that has been superseded, but was true in it’s particular time and place. Or in some ways, like the Old Catholic Encyclopedia, or even an out of date catechism.The beliefs about married priests (i.e. doctrine about Holy Matrimony and Holy Orders) are the same throughout the Catholic Church.
The doctrine regarding private revelation is the same throughout the Catholic Church.
With no authority who is to say what is essential and what is not?
The sensus fidelium is binding over time and space.You are rather missing the point. Why don’t I use a different example - the articles are like an old Vatican document that has been superseded, but was true in it’s particular time and place. Or in some ways, like the Old Catholic Encyclopedia, or even an out of date catechism.
Some documents are not meant to be binding over all time and space.
The writings of the Early Church Fathers speak for themselves.As to your last question, I guess you will have to ask the people in the early centuries of the Christian era, or in the Orthodox world.
“over time and space” being the key phrase there. I am not sure how you can use the phrase sensus fidelium without realizing that it doesn’t support your point at all.The sensus fidelium is binding over time and space.
The sensus fidelium is not bound geographically or temporally. That you don’t have the sensus fidelium does not diminish it. Doctrines are not superseded.“over time and space” being the key phrase there. I am not sure how you can use the phrase sensus fidelium without realizing that it doesn’t support your point at all.
Do you really believe that doctrinal expressions are not superceded in Catholicism? There are threads on here all the time where people want to understand how to reconcile, say, what the CC used to say about other religions with what they say now in the CCC. That is just one example.The sensus fidelium is not bound geographically or temporally. That you don’t have the sensus fidelium does not diminish it. Doctrines are not superseded.
Didn’t you mean that Protestants are moving closer to the CC and the CC is moving closer to Protestants by the following statement?I never said the CC is moving in the direction of Protestantism.
If not, then what is the “CC is moving closer to,” in your opinion?Anna Scott wrote:
Let’s celebrate the fact that we are all moving closer together.
Referring to the red highlight above, It is the Church’s doctrines, once for all delivered to the saints (Jude 3), that have never changed and never will. Popes have changed 265 times.I know. England wasn’t pleased with Wycliffe, nor was Pope Martin V, who, more than 40 years after Wycliffe’s death, ordered Wycliffe’s bones to be dug up, burned, and scatter in the river. (And people say the Catholic Church hasn’t changed.) Not that England’s kings were any more merciful to dissenters in conflict with their beliefs-Protestant or Catholic in nature.
As it was in the beginning, is now, and ever shall be, world without end, Amen.I am well aware of the Catholic stance on the “primacy of Peter,” which is a different belief from that of Protestants, Anglicans, and Orthodox Christians.
You would have to ask them.Anna Scott wrote:
Which canon/translation do the Anglican Broad (liberal) and Low (evangelical) branches use?
Peace, Jim Dandy
You would have to ask them.
Anna
. . . .The 39 Articles are not accepted uniformly throughout the Anglican Communion. Unlike the Catholic Church, we are not required to “submit religious mind and will” to those who hold positions of authority within the Anglican Communion. . . . .
1holycatholic,Why use a term like communion (i.e. common union) when that’s not the case?
. . . .Which canon/translation do the Anglican Broad (liberal) and Low (evangelical) branches use?
You would have to ask them.
Anna
Very good gurney.Yeah. Remember the great maxim of our fellow, venerable poster GKC: “depends on which Anglicans you ask!”![]()
Jim Dandy,
If memory serves me correctly, the first English versions of the Bible were translated from the Vulgate, rather than from the Greek or Hebrew. Of course, the first English translations of the Bible were oral, and then written later.
I think it was John Wycliffe who first translated a complete Bible into English primarily using the Vulgate. Of course Wycliffe was declared a heretic by the Catholic Church.History is complicated.
I wasn’t defending either translation.. . . . .The Church has always rejected poor, inaccurate translations (like Wyclif’s and the KJV, for example). . . .
I know. England wasn’t pleased with Wycliffe, nor was Pope Martin V, who, more than 40 years after Wycliffe’s death, ordered Wycliffe’s bones to be dug up, burned, and scatter in the river. (And people say the Catholic Church hasn’t changed.)Not that England’s kings were any more merciful to dissenters in conflict with their beliefs-Protestant or Catholic in nature. . .
. . . .Referring to the red highlight above, It is the Church’s doctrines, once for all delivered to the saints (Jude 3), that have never changed and never will. Popes have changed 265 times. . . .
Lighten up a bit, Jim. My comment, “And people say the Catholic Church hasn’t changed,” was written with a. . . .I an well aware of Pope Martin V and Wyclif’s bones.
I know it is not the same, one is a communion the other is not.You are applying the view of those in Communion with Rome to the Anglican Communion; and it is not the same.
You’ve simply redefined the Church to accommodate heresy. If, as St. Paul says, the Church is the pillar and foundation of the truth (1 Timothy 3:15) then there can only be one Church due to the law of non-contradiction. The Nicene Creed in no way accommodates the Protestant rebellion. In any case Anglican orders are invalid and therefore do not constitute apostolic succession.Anglicans recite the Nicene Creed, which includes the statements: “We believe in one holy catholic and Apostolic Church. We acknowledge one baptism for the forgiveness of sins. We look for the resurrection of the dead, and the life of the world to come.”
The word “Catholic” is understood as universal, meaning Christians in all times and in all places. This belief in the Church as universal, makes it easier for Anglicans to be in communion with other Christians who do not hold the exact same beliefs.
In any case Anglican orders are invalid and therefore do not constitute apostolic succession.
1holycatholic,I know it is not the same, one is a communion the other is not.
You’ve simply redefined the Church to accommodate heresy. If, as St. Paul says, the Church is the pillar and foundation of the truth (1 Timothy 3:15) then there can only be one Church due to the law of non-contradiction. The Nicene Creed in no way accommodates the Protestant rebellion. In any case Anglican orders are invalid and therefore do not constitute apostolic succession.
gurney,That is according to Pope Leo XIII. Many things have happened since Apostolicae Curae that mitigate the legitimacy of what he taught in that bull. Also the logic behind the bull was not very well-thought-out. The Dutch Touch and Polish Pat have influenced the field.
When you tell an Anglican, in this case, Anna, that Anglican orders are invalid from a Catholic point of view, she’s not Catholic so it’s a bit of a non sequitor.