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Catholics did not write the NT; they didn't exist at the time.
They did, Seeking. Scripture testifies to this.
2 Peter 1:20-21
20 First of all you must understand this, that no prophecy of scripture is a matter of one’s own interpretation, 21 because no prophecy ever came by the impulse of man, but men moved by the Holy Spirit spoke from God.
The “men moved by the HS” that wrote the NT were Catholic.
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When did the word Catholic, in reference to the Catholic Church, first appear? 1st, 2nd or perhaps 3rd century..maybe you could help me here.
The reference to the Church as Catholic already appears in the book of Acts, so it was in use by the time that book was written within 20 years of the Lord’s resurrection.
Acts 9:31
31 So **the church throughout **all Judea and Galilee and Sama’ria had peace and was built up; and walking in the fear of the Lord and in the comfort of the Holy Spirit it was multiplied.
This reference in Gk. is kath holos = “the Church throughout” - Catholic.
Ignatius, bishop of Antioch, where they were first called “Christians” writes to the Smyrnians:
Where the bishop is to be seen, there let all his people be, just as wherever Jesus Christ is present, there is the Catholic Church" (8:1, 2).
This was not later than 110 AD.
**The Scripture say the church is built upon the prophets and Apostles; which is their proclamation of the Truth of God in Jesus.
Nothing more or less. That is why anyone who can present the gospel has the authority and power to loose and bind.**
It is not just the “proclamation” of the Gospel upon which the Church is built, but the authority that was placed in them by Jesus. People not in unity with them attempting to exercise authority were considered in a state of rebellion.
Scripture will always verify it self;
I was taught this erroneous notion also. It took a long time for me to realize it is not true.
it is the gift of the Holy Spirit to understand the Bible in the first place , but you must first have the indwelling, then you must be diligent in reading, hearing and studying and God has commanded. No one is perfect in its interpretation; there are things we cannot fully understand in our finite fallen selves.
This is precisely WHY the Church needed the gift of infallibility.
The Spirit of God is infallible, that is why Jesus sent Him to lead us into all truth.
it is obvious to me that you have no fear of the Lord.
Since fear of the Lord is a matter of the deep heart, what you are saying is that you are able to take the place of God, and to read and interpret the hearts of others.
**Every interpretation is of an individual or group of individuals; the difference is getting it right, which only the Holy Spirit can lead one to the truth as revealed in Scripture. The proof is the same material is being read, but two very different conclusion as to the truth of what is being read. Only 3 possibilities exist 1) we are both wrong 2) you are wrong or 3) I am wrong. **
Yes, but Jesus did not promise to send His spirit to lead any random group of individuals into the truth. He sent the Spirit to the Church, which is founded upon the Apsostles. without this Spirit, we are at the mercy of our fallibility. Infallibility is the gift that Peter was exercising when He proclaimed Jesus to be the Christ. It is revealed by God.
this reminds of what father Corapi said: the HS will never speak against the CC. " if anyone claiming to have the HS and speak against the Holy Church we can rest assure that is not the Spirit of God." i like that.
True. The full deposit of faith was given to the Church “once for all”. Therefore, whatever we understand that comes afterward will not contradict what was given.