2 Questions on the Early Church and Scripture

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Yet you cannot provide any Scripture verse that says “Scripture verifies itself”?

I can tell you this: you can look from Genesis to Revelation and you will not find it anywhere.

It is a man-made tradition that you’ve succumbed to.

Beautiful verses, all! But, yet, not a single one says that Scripture interprets itself.

That’s why the CC teaches that Scripture alone is not sufficient. It is profitable and useful, and the Word of God, but it is not sufficient.

It is the CC which has taken the entire Revelation of God and presented it to you.

Again, you leave, Pat, when the Truth has been presented to you.
Again, you make the claim that Scripture is insufficient; where does this say that in Scripture please? See again how your own logic works against you. If you cannot read Psalm 119 and Psalm 19 and not see the parallels as concerning Scripture; meaning they implicitly say the same thing and verify each other as to the truth and nature of Scripture through massive repetition.

By the way; is Scripture sufficient to bring a person to salvation"? If so, then what more needs to be added given the warnings in Scripture about adding to the word of God?

Actually, your last statement is not correct by any stretch of the imagination; for one thing they added books known to contain errors and the God I know and serve is perfect, holy, undefiled and does not make mistakes as it is with man. Then add the Eastern Orthodox who would make your exact same arguments and they to have selected additional books, some similar and some different than yours, but make the same claims…so how do you reconcile the errors and differences between those claims? Answer: The Church says so; making it it’s own divine authority, the fourth leg added to the trinity? Just expressing what is a logical conclusion when carried out in my pinion and many others.

Again we digress and need to move along.
 
Up until now I have enjoyed our conversation, but I must admit that your opening comment seems to carry a rather negative and close minded attitude. If I am interpreting this wrong, please forgive me.

However, since you choose not to go to The Word yourself, as the Bereans did, I will provide you with the passage. It is in Mt 18: 15-18. This contains the method by which conflicts may be resolved. Now - Before you claim that this applies to “sin” (if your brother sins…), I will ask you this question. Is spreading a false Gospel a sin??
Matthew 18: 15-18
15 "If your brother sins, go and show him his fault in private; if he listens to you, you have won your brother. 16 "But if he does not listen to you, take one or two more with you, so that by the mouth of two or three witnesses every fact may be confirmed. 17 "If he refuses to listen to them, tell it to the church; and if he refuses to listen even to the church let him be as a tax collector. 18 "Truly I say to you, whatever you bind on earth shall have been bound in heaven; and whatever you loose on earth shall have been loosed in heaven.

Here we have Christ’s own Words telling us that if we cannot resolve a matter personally and informally, then we should present it to The Church and be humble enough to submit to the decision of The Church.

Now we see this played out in Acts 15 where the Christians in Antioch were taught one thing by St Paul, and then were upset by the Christians from Jerusalem who were taught another. This issue was so complex and divisive that not even St Paul Himself, chosen personally by Christ and a star student of a great Rabbi, was able to resolve it.
So - What did they do? They took it to The Church. The result was the Council of Jerusalem where the matter was placed before the elders of The Church including Peter and James.
The results of this council settled the matter, not just for Jerusalem and Antioch, but for the Church universal.
The Church has used such councils from that day to this to resolve many matters of doctrinal dispute (like the baptism issue) as well as to combat heresy. Depending on the issues, the councils might be more or less formal, they might be regional, diocesan, or it might be a full blown ecumenical council.
But whatever size or whatever issues, each one is based upon and built upon the biblical intsructions of Christ in Mt 18 and the example spelled out in Acts.

Therefore, whenever I see a thread like this one, where the two sides are at a “loggerhed”, I feel that it is appropriate to suggest that, rather than continue a duscussion that is going nowhere and both sides have thoroughly expressed their postion, we should “tell it to The Church” and be willing to submit to her decision in humility as we would to Christ Himself.

The next objection that generally comes from this line of discussion is how one defines “Church”. Well I think that Jesus covered that pretty well too. The term Church is used in the Gospels exactly twice. Each time by Jesus himself, and Each time connected with the granting of authority. Mt 16: 17-19 and Mt 18:15-18. The authority granted is to “Bind and Loose…Whatever”.
So while “Church” or “ecclesia” is rightly translated “community” such translation does not remove, or preclude authority.

Now I recognize that you will most likely not accept this at face value. You have been taught to reject any “earthly” authority and yet, by faith, you do. You accept the earthly authroity of those in the 16th Century who told you to reject earthly authority. Christ did not tell you this or He would never have spoken or caused to be written Mt 18:15-18. St Paul does not tell you this or he would not have refered the circumcision matter to the Jerusalem council. Nor would He have called The Church, “The Pillar and Bulwark of Truth”.

I ask that only that you ponder this matter in your heart.

Peace
James
James I strongly suspected you were going to the section on church discipline, which has nothing to do with the context concerning which is correct doctrine and what is not.
Yes, pronouncing and teaching a false doctrine is a real bad thing for the one who does.

One would have to determine which doctrine is true and what is not and that is established in Scripture, which case I am correct that water baptism is not necessary for salvation as the thief on the cross proves to us and the NT Biblical pattern was and always has been hearing, believing, then receiving the HS, which is the point of justification, then followed immediately by water baptism; is still the common practice throughout the church today.

Unfortunately for some reason some people make a general profession and are advised to be water baptized and for whatever reason do not, which is a direct act of disobedience and I believe a sin because it is a direct command throughout the NT. So water baptism is an important thing to do for the right reason(s).

Ponder this; Matthew 18 is Jesus preaching to a group of disciples like any other sermon He gave and His apostles were there as well as we can see from the context. So in Matthew 16 it is to all the apostles there and Matthew 18 it is to all Christians and where is the authority and why is heaven in agreement because both come from the same source, which is God, and the loosing and binding power comes from the Gospel and whether one accepts the good news or rejects the good news is what determines if ones sins are loosed or bound. Very simple concept; yet amazing how many people can’t see it or understand it. Yet, if asked if you gave someone the gospel and they told you to “shove it”; you could easily tell that person you are bound in your sin unless you repent…right? Would you be correct and would heaven be in agreement? Your answer would be “yes of course”.
 
Again, you make the claim that Scripture is insufficient; where does this say that in Scripture please?
I don’t have to show that everything I believe is in Scripture. That’s *your *non-Scriptural, man-made tradition, Pat.
By the way; is Scripture sufficient to bring a person to salvation"?
ABSSSOLUUUTELY NOT, Pat! Jesus Christ–Him and Him ALONE-- is what is required to bring a person to salvation.
 
Quick question here:

Why is it that most (not all, but most) protestants will swear till they are blue in the face that “scripture interprets itself”, “the Holy Spirit will guide us all into Truth (pretty much as a mandatory)”, “The bible is all we need”, and sundry other hogwash, but what they really mean is “MY interpretation is correct, and no need to prove it”?

I know I know, Catholics do that too, but we have the weight of History, the apostles, and Sacred Tradition behind us.

Anyway back to the original topic.

FSC
 
Why is it that most (not all, but most) protestants will swear till they are blue in the face that “scripture interprets itself”
I use this in my math classes. If scripture Z is interpreted by scripture Y, and scripture Y is interpreted by scripture X, and so on up to scripture B which is interpreted by scripture A, then what verse interprets scripture A? Either scripture A must in turn be interpreted by scripture Z, or the meaning of scripture A must be self-evident. So if scripture interprets itself, then either all scriptures are circular, or some scriptures are not interpreted by scripture. Either way, you end with an absurdity or a contradiction.
 
Pat de and PRmerger, this has gotten off topic, however I’d be very interested if you two made a thread about your views on scripture
 
The question is asked is one’s own interpretation of the plain meaning of scripture sufficient.

The answer is in the negative. St Peter points out that some parts of Paul, as well as other parts of the Bible, are difficult to understand and some, at least, may need help in understanding him.
So also our beloved brother Paul wrote to you according to the wisdom given him, 16 speaking of this as he does in all his letters. There are some things in them hard to understand, which the ignorant and unstable twist to their own destruction, as they do the other scriptures (2 Pet 3:15b-16).
 
Also Paul teaches that through baptism we have died with Christ and our re-entry into the world is in a sense our coming into new life with Christ.

Acts 2:38 “But Peter said to them: Do penance, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ, for the remission of your sins: and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.”

Acts 8:12 “But when they had believed Philip preaching of the kingdom of God, in the name of Jesus Christ, they were baptized, both men and women.”

Acts 10:48 “And he commanded them to be baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ. Then they desired him to tarry with them some days.” Note that he did not request that they be baptized, it was a command

Romans 6:3-11
FidesSpesCarita
1.Paul and Peter was talking about a spiritual baptism.
2. The Apostles did perform Water Baptism but it wasn’t for salvation
3. The Eunuch brought up Water Baptism to Phillip and Phillip said he had to first believe with all his heart then he could be Water Baptized.
4. You quote Acts 10:48 but you forgot to quote the 47th verse that says; Can any man forbid water, that these should not be baptized, which have received the Holy Ghost as we?
Jerry Kelso
 
I use this in my math classes. If scripture Z is interpreted by scripture Y, and scripture Y is interpreted by scripture X, and so on up to scripture B which is interpreted by scripture A, then what verse interprets scripture A? Either scripture A must in turn be interpreted by scripture Z, or the meaning of scripture A must be self-evident. So if scripture interprets itself, then either all scriptures are circular, or some scriptures are not interpreted by scripture. Either way, you end with an absurdity or a contradiction.
I think what is meant by the non-biblical teaching that “Scripture will always verify itself” is not that there is a linking from one verse to another…but that each and every verse in Scripture will have another verse which says the same thing.

Unfortunately, not only is this not true–for where is the verse which verifies that “Saul went into a cave to relieve himself” (! Samuel 24: 3)–but Scripture also never claims that it will verify itself.

If it did, then you can be sure that PatDe would have found it and posted it here.

One must conclude that this is a man-made tradition.
 
The Apostles did perform Water Baptism but it wasn’t for salvation
Then why did St. Peter say that “baptism now saves you”?

Now, clearly, it is not the “water” that saves–for all that is is H20. So why would St. Peter say that baptism saves us if it’s not for our salvation? :hmmm:
 
  1. Many protestant misunderstand what Catholics mean by salvation through faith and works. It’s not as though the catholic thinks that by doing good works they can earn salvation. Salvation is a free gift by God through grace. However it does not mean that is the end of the story. We believe that we comply with grace by works prepared for us by Christ and that he gives us the means in order to complete those works (Phil 2: 12-13). When a builder takes on a new apprentice the employee has not earned his position but received the free gift of employment. By himself the apprentice cannot complete the work expected of him. Yet his employer trust that with the right guidance and help the apprentice can handle the required work and thus merit/ keep his employment status. The only scripture that says faith alone condemns it if it is without works (James 2:24). Paul stats,” God will give to each according to his works”. To those that “persists in doing good seek glory, honour and immortality, he will give eternal life” (Rom 2:6-8). Jesus himself never advocates the doctrine of faith alone. Ask your friend to explain the separation of the sheep and goats (Matt 25: 31-46).
  2. Paul writes in Rom 6:4 that we have died to our former selves in baptism in order that we are raised from the death and receive a new life. Jesus said in John 3:5 that no one can have eternal live unless they are “born a new” through spirit and water (baptism). Obviously the two verses are consistent with each other. Paul also travelled to see Peter in order that Paul’s doctrine was the same (Gal 2:9). He may have opposed Peter but not because of Peters teaching but because Peter failed to practice what he preached as stipulated in Acts 15. Peter, consistent with Paul and Jesus wrote “baptism now saves you” (1st Peter 3:21).
Some times when arguing from church history does not help use the bible. ?
Kkoleon: You didn’t quote Peter correctly! You said where Baptism saves us. The next words is ( not to the filth of the flesh) but an answer to a good conscience. Jerry kelso
 
I don’t have to show that everything I believe is in Scripture. That’s *your *non-Scriptural, man-made tradition, Pat.

ABSSSOLUUUTELY NOT, Pat! Jesus Christ–Him and Him ALONE-- is what is required to bring a person to salvation.
Scripture is sufficient to bring a person to salvation - for it has the good news and so by adding or taking away this good news is often turned into bad news "take Jn.21:25 in conjunction with Jn.20:30-31 - twinc
 
I think what is meant by the non-biblical teaching that “Scripture will always verify itself” is not that there is a linking from one verse to another…but that each and every verse in Scripture will have another verse which says the same thing.

Unfortunately, not only is this not true–for where is the verse which verifies that “Saul went into a cave to relieve himself” (! Samuel 24: 3)–but Scripture also never claims that it will verify itself.

If it did, then you can be sure that PatDe would have found it and posted it here.

One must conclude that this is a man-made tradition.
Samuel 24:3 does not require verifying nor does it need verifying that Jesus and his Apostles must have relieved themselves many times but not even mentioned once - twinc
 
James I strongly suspected you were going to the section on church discipline, which has nothing to do with the context concerning which is correct doctrine and what is not.
Yes, pronouncing and teaching a false doctrine is a real bad thing for the one who does.
Why doesn’t it. you admit above that teaching fals doctrine is a “real bad thing” (aka sin) but then you say that Christ’s own instructions which are contained in Scripture don’t apply???
Remarkable
One would have to determine which doctrine is true and what is not and that is established in Scripture, which case I am correct that water baptism is not necessary for salvation as the thief on the cross proves to us and the NT Biblical pattern was and always has been hearing, believing, then receiving the HS, which is the point of justification, then followed immediately by water baptism; is still the common practice throughout the church today.
All fine and good that you believe you are correct. Others here who have been talking with you also believe they are correct and have been using Scripture to support their position.
Thus it can be said that, while Truth may be established in Scripture, Proper ununderstanding of Scripture may not be so self evident. Hense Christ’s clear instructions on how to handle such situations.
Unfortunately for some reason some people make a general profession and are advised to be water baptized and for whatever reason do not, which is a direct act of disobedience and I believe a sin because it is a direct command throughout the NT. So water baptism is an important thing to do for the right reason(s).
And so - how can their general profession be of any salvic merit when they immediately engage in a, “direct act of disobedience…because it is a direct command throughout the NT”, against God? In this one statement you’ve made the for the salvic necessity of water baptism.
Thank you very much.
Ponder this; Matthew 18 is Jesus preaching to a group of disciples like any other sermon He gave and His apostles were there as well as we can see from the context. So in Matthew 16 it is to all the apostles there and Matthew 18 it is to all Christians and where is the authority and why is heaven in agreement because both come from the same source, which is God, and the loosing and binding power comes from the Gospel and whether one accepts the good news or rejects the good news is what determines if ones sins are loosed or bound. Very simple concept; yet amazing how many people can’t see it or understand it. Yet, if asked if you gave someone the gospel and they told you to “shove it”; you could easily tell that person you are bound in your sin unless you repent…right? Would you be correct and would heaven be in agreement? Your answer would be “yes of course”.
Actually - Yes it is a simple concept and a very simple set of instructions.
Too bad that you don’t properly understand it.
I can virtually guarantee that if I gave a bible to someone who never read the bible before, never attended Church before, that they would not get your understanding from that passage.

Ponder this:
If we take away your obvious fear of anything heirarchial or “authoritative” (such as the RC Structure) and look at the term “Church” only in the sense of “community” (ecclesia) the third step in Christ’s instruction reads as follows:
""If he refuses to listen to them, tell it to the community; and if he refuses to listen even to the community let him be as a tax collector.
The following verse then carries on this theme
Truly I say to you (the community), whatever you bind on earth shall have been bound in heaven; and whatever you loose on earth shall have been loosed in heaven.

So from the above we can see that where their ar contentious issues between individual members it is the “community” that makes the determination as to what shall be “bound or loosed”. Naturally this determination is made (or should be made) humbly, prayerfully and charitably, under the Guidance of the Holy Spirit.

So far we have been looking and thinking in terms of a “local community”. Now we need to take this to the next level. What happens when one local community makes one determination and another local community makes a different and essentially opposing or incompatable determination? After all this is what happened betweent he local communities of Antioch and Jerusalem, or more generally between the Gentile Christians and the Jewish Christians.
This is where Acts 15 comes in. The two local communites could not settle the matter between themselves, nor could they settle it with the help of the great teacher they had in St Paul. But - rather than each treating the others as “tax collectors”, they appealed to the “elders of the community”, in council for a determination.
Why did they do this? Very simple - to maintain the Unity for which Christ prayed in John 17:20-21. For just as any individual is a member of the local community (church) so is each local community (church) a member of the universal community (church) and Unity of the universal community demands unity on what is “bound and loosed”.

So - your contention that “binding and loosing” is somehow “individual” just does not fly.
surely you are correct in saying that if someone refuses to hear the Gospel that we can say tehy remain “bound in their sin” but all we are doing their is expressing through ourselves what is the belief of the universal Church (community), and not something that we have determined individually and seperate from the community.

Peace
James
 
The question is asked is one’s own interpretation of the plain meaning of scripture sufficient.

The answer is in the negative. St Peter points out that some parts of Paul, as well as other parts of the Bible, are difficult to understand and some, at least, may need help in understanding him.
as per usual the true interpretation or understanding is twisted to suit the argument and make the scripture say what it does not say or imply - it clearly says here the ignorant so all Protestants are ignorant and all Catholics are not - twinc
 
I use this in my math classes. If scripture Z is interpreted by scripture Y, and scripture Y is interpreted by scripture X, and so on up to scripture B which is interpreted by scripture A, then what verse interprets scripture A? Either scripture A must in turn be interpreted by scripture Z, or the meaning of scripture A must be self-evident. So if scripture interprets itself, then either all scriptures are circular, or some scriptures are not interpreted by scripture. Either way, you end with an absurdity or a contradiction.
you have started off with an absurdity and finished up with an absurdity naturally - we are told and advised by Christ,St.Paul and the Church to"search the scriptures to see if these things be so" - so there would be no sense in searching the scriptures -twinc
 
Twinc
as per usual the true interpretation or understanding is twisted to suit the argument and make the scripture say what it does not say or imply - it clearly says here the ignorant so all Protestants are ignorant and all Catholics are not - twinc
Thank you for your reply. I prefer to get replies rather than not. I have heard it claimed that Americans do not do irony. Do you think this is so? I presume you are American and ‘have your tongue in your cheek’ when you replied to me.

In fact many of the best biblical scholars are Protestant, as Catholics were late getting involved in serious academic scholarship.

In a sense Leo XIII, who was canonized for his holiness not his scholarship, set back study in the Church for years, possibly until Vat II. But he did found the Pontifical Biblical Institute and Commission and wrote Providentissimus Deus (1893), which got modern Catholic Biblical studies underway. In 1943 Catholic biblical scholarship was advanced by Divino Affante Spiritu (Pius XII). In 1965, over 40 yeares ago, Catholic biblical research was encouraged by Paul VI in Dei Verbum. More recently (1994) the Pontifical Biblical Commission wrote very powerfully on The Interpretation of th Bible in the Church.

At the prestent time, Catholics, Protestants, Jews, those of other faiths and of none can contribute to biblical scholarship and can help in understanding the Word of God.

Excellence and ignorance are not restricted to any one group.
 
Twinc

I see now you are from the UK.

I am also retired and interested in walking, scripture and study.

I note you are interested in creationism. The thought just struck me you may have been serious.

Sorry!
 
Scripture is sufficient to bring a person to salvation - for it has the good news and so by adding or taking away this good news is often turned into bad news "take Jn.21:25 in conjunction with Jn.20:30-31 - twinc
Absolutely not–Scripture can not be sufficient to bring a person to salvation. How was it, then, that the Good Thief was saved, without Scripture?

How is it that those who have read Scripture are* not *saved?

How is it that for the first 4 centuries when there was no Bible that people were getting “saved” right and left?
 
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