I don’t offer my own interpretation of scripture; my comments are based on what the Church teaches.
Ender
Please, don’t apply a comment made in one context to another one made in an entirely different context. I’m not interpreting Scripture here. There should be no necessity of citing magisterial sources to explain the plain meaning of words. Besides, both the USCCB and the Montana Bishops Conference explicitly said the same thing I said.
We ought reject lay authors who would teach that which opposes Church teaching.
They are not “teaching” anything; they are simply using the terms the church uses. Besides, when did Cardinal Dulles et al become “lay”? Here is another non-lay observation.
Traditionally, punishment had been justified by three purposes:
(i) Retribution of damaged juridic order. Punishment aims to redress the disorder introduced by the offense, by depriving the offender of a good of a proportionate degree to that which was suffered by the offended, or—in the ultimate analysis—by the society. Hence, the punishment must be commensurate to the gravity of the offense. In any case, retribution cannot be confused with revenge. (Fr. Jim Achacoso)
Again, he uses the term “retribution” synonymous with “redress the disorder.” How many excuses can you find to continue to deny what ought to be obvious?
The addition of “if bloodless means are available” criterion as necessary to permit cp has been adopted and promulgated by every college and synod of bishops I have been able to source.
You’re avoiding the issue I raised by changing the subject. At the moment the only question I am discussing is whether “
redressing the disorder” means “
retribution.” I can cite at least a dozen sources making that exact point, clergy and lay. That you refuse to accept this fact doesn’t make it any less true.