(…CONTINUED AND COMPLETED)
Because, Cecilia, the way that Rome understands sexuality, homosexuality is a very different animal than a psychological disorder, a physical disorder, or what have you. Because it is a
moral disorder. As I’ve explained before, because homosexuality is seen as a disorder in the capacity to form good and appropriate relationships, a capacity which is intimately involved with what it means to be a human being, a homosexual is
incapable of relating correctly to the good. The catechism moreover does not suggest that this is a forensic brokenness, but an
intrinsic one, otherwise conversion therapy would be the only viable option and would be enforced. Which is to say, homosexuals, according to the catechism, suffer from a
moral disorder which impairs their affectivity, making all of their relationships questionable, and preventing them from desiring appropriate objects. This is a moral impairment *different *from that of Original Sin, because (as I’ve explained before) while Original Sin is seen as
wounding our capacity to will correctly, the catechism appears to insist that homosexuality
destroys a homosexual’s capacity to will correctly. A human being, crippled by original sin, may still receive the influence of grace which allows for the choice of the good. Homosexuality is
incapable of such influence. It is, according to the catechism’s logic,
beyond grace. This is why your various comparisons don’t quite work.
Experience and observation are not the authority here.
You are effectively arguing that you cannot tell a tree by its fruit. Is this what you mean to say?
Also, human flourishing does not necessarily equal virtue.
It doesn’t? Can a human being flourish
without virtue? Can the fruits of the Spirit be
entirely lacking in an individual or a relationship and can that indivdual or relationship still lay claim to flourishing? I find such an idea suspicious.
We have a fallen nature which is certainly not 100% in line with God’s law and has not been since Eden.
You are absolutely correct. But again, nature is wounded, but not destroyed. We are still susceptible to grace, even in our compromised position. However, the catechism seems to suggest that the homosexual’s will and nature (because of a disorder which affects his/her human wholeness, which damages his/her relational capacity, and which can admit of no moral expression) is
entirely corrupt.
Serious practice of the Catholic faith is largely against societal norms.
Serious practice of the truth will naturally be against societal norms (see Rene Girard in this regard and his work studying patterns of desire). I am reminded of a Bukowski quotation that he wrote in one of my partner’s books, and I paraphrase, “In order to get closer to the truth, take the beliefs of the average person and reverse them.”
But I am curious how your bible presents 1 Corinthians 6:9-10.
The interpretation hinges on what the words malakos and arsenokoitai mean. The former generally meant soft, weak, not necessarily effeminate (which is how it’s often translated) but dissipated. The suggestion is one of moral, particularly sexual libertinism. Louche is probably the best translation of this word.
Arsenokoitai is more difficult as it doesn’t appear in any Greek literature that has come down to us until after Paul’s writings. If he meant “homosexual” by it or “homosexual activity” the most common word he could have used was related to our word pederasty. But he didn’t use that word. The context and language in which Paul’s nelogism is used, though, suggests to some scholars some sort of commercial activity. Paul is condemning all forms of sexual expression which have an element of commerce to them–specifically, and in context, one who is a sex-slave/prostitute, one who pays for or uses such a slave, and one who procures such slaves. There is no aspect of a commercial sexual transaction which is not tainted, therefore. He is decrying human sexual trafficking, to which we may include today commercial pornography.
There is also a chance that he is referring to anal sex between two men with the use of the term arsenokoitai. It’s not impossible. Paul was a hellenized Jew, and Greek sexual practices, while relatively permissive with regard to homosexual expression, did not smile upon anal intercourse between men–they found it degrading because it feminized a man, and women were seen as little better than animals. If this theory is true, arsenokoitai may be an attempt to translate the Levitical prohibition against “men lying the lyings of a woman.” Which would also accord with a translation of malakos as effeminate–which may suggest a reading of malakos as a penetrated man, and arsenokoitai as one who penetrates. It certainly makes sense.
Now let’s be clear–I’m sure you’re not suggesting that being in a loving homosexual relationship necessarily means anal sex or feminine roleplay. Or are you?
I’m enjoying the discussion, Cecilia.
Under the Mercy,
Mark
All is Grace and Mercy! Deo Gratias!