P
PRmerger
Guest
The Church’s answer is that this was man’s free will, but that it was “O happy fault!”Let me ask Pythons, do you think that it was God’s purpose that man sin?
WHERE SIN ABOUNDED, GRACE ABOUNDED ALL THE MORE.
The Church’s answer is that this was man’s free will, but that it was “O happy fault!”Let me ask Pythons, do you think that it was God’s purpose that man sin?
It was God’s purpose to “create man” absolutely however it was not the purpose of God that man would live apart from God’s will…Let me ask Pythons, do you think that it was God’s purpose that man sin?
So, It was God’spurpose that man live according to His will?It was God’s purpose to “create man” absolutely however it was not the purpose of God that man would live apart from God’s will…
…Like PRmerger has said, God created man as a creature of free will.
2 Timothy 2,12
If we suffer, we shall also reign with him: if we deny him, he also will deny us: If we believe not, yet he abideth faithful: he CANNOT deny himself.
If “God” sinned and lost His Salvation and forever ceased to exist ( as the SDA rubric requires )…
…It would first require that God denied Himself.
So what you are saying then is that Christ did not come in the likeness of sinful flesh like every other man and that He did not have free will ie. the ability to sin and lose eternal life? Is that right?Zeph 3,5
The just LORD is in the midst thereof; he will NOT do iniquity: every morning doth he bring his judgment to light, he faileth not; but the unjust knoweth no shame
Having free will is not consonant with necessarily sinning, Richard.So what you are saying then is that Christ did not come in the likeness of sinful flesh like every other man and that He did not have free will ie. the ability to sin and lose eternal life? Is that right?
Yes. Catholicism teaches that there is a difference between God’s antecedent will, and God’s consequent will. The antecedent will is, essentially and inevitably, fulfilled. The consequent will, however, is that which has its origins in our choices.So, It was God’spurpose that man live according to His will?
Never said it was PR. Read my post again. Merely trying to clarify Pythons position.Having free will is not consonant with necessarily sinning, Richard.
My apologies. Then I am not understanding your question. What about Python’s position needs clarification? That Jesus had free will yet never sinned?Never said it was PR. Read my post again. Merely trying to clarify Pythons position.
No, that’s not at all what I’m saying and attempting to help you see…So what you are saying then is that Christ did not come in the likeness of sinful flesh like every other man and that He did not have free will ie. the ability to sin and lose eternal life? Is that right?
If Jesus came in the likeness of sinful flesh, there must have been the possibility for Him to have sinned. If there was not the possibility for Him to sin, He was not in the likeness of sinful flesh.No, that’s not at all what I’m saying and attempting to help you see…
…The question is phrased in an Adventist premise which supposes.
…That the likeness of sinful flesh IS sinful flesh.
Jesus came to us in the “likeness” of sinful flesh NOT in sinful flesh…
…All the Apostles of Christ were absolutely “in sinful flesh”.
…He ( Christ ) was in “all” ways like us APART from sin.
The premise you attached to those scriptures was yours.I was originally asked to show Scriptures which demonstrated the impossibility of Christ sinning and loosing His Salvation…
…I followed through with this request by posting those Scriptures.
…To the point I started to feel ill from attaching the Adventist premise subsequent to those Scriptures.
After it was established - that there was eternally no possibility of God ceasing to exist…
…Another concept of “free will” is introduced whereas it is implied that since man has free will.
…Christ would, by default, also have free will because He came in the likness of sinful flesh.
So, just to be clear once again, you are saying that Christ whithout free will and whithout the possibility of sinning could not have come in the likeness of sinful flesh, right?This is generally the mechanism by which error is protected at all costs…
…For a “Bible Only” fundie this question would have been answered immediately.
…However, since the question and Bible answers to that question repudiate Ellen White’s teaching.
…The theological concepts of Ellen White will trump Sacred Scripture each and every time.
…And of course the logic used will be; ‘but, that’s what the Bible teaches’.
Really Kathleen? You see a stance against Catholicism in my recent posts? In my last 3 or 4 posts I have merely asked Pythons for clarification. How is this “refusing to face the truth of our faith in Jesus Christ.”Richard,
You have been on CAF longer than I…you know our beliefs on Jesus Christ…I haven’t been on SDA threads for awhile…I see the same stance against Catholicism…back and forth, but refusing to face the truth of our faith in Jesus Christ.
That’s like saying since Lucifer went to war against God in heaven Lucifer had to have had a punchers chance in defeating God…If Jesus came in the likeness of sinful flesh, there must have been the possibility for Him to have sinned. If there was not the possibility for Him to sin, He was not in the likeness of sinful flesh.
How do you justify that statement you just made in light of the following?The premise you attached to those scriptures was yours.
God can do ANYTHING Richard - execpt NOT BE GOD…So, just to be clear once again, you are saying that Christ whithout free will and whithout the possibility of sinning could not have come in the likeness of sinful flesh, right?
To defend the heretical position of Ellen White you are now claiming** if Christ couldn’t sin Christ couldn’t be a sacrifice…**
Ellen White
But Jesus Christ was the only begotten Son of God. He took upon Himself human nature, and was tempted in all points as human nature is tempted.** He could have sinned; He could have fallen**,
Heb 9:22 D-R ) But because, “* it is impossible that with the blood of oxen and goats sin should be taken away.” * Heb 10:4 D-R, Christ, our Lord having become sin for us, offered himself, willingly, the perfect sacrifice for the whole world, …Protector said:and without shedding of blood there is no remission.
Caiphas unknowingly put this selfless act,(that changed the World forever), into one simple sentence when he advised the Jews, ".that it was expedient that one man should die for the people John 18:14 D-R.
Protector said:He became sin for us
, “For he hath made him,… who knew no sin (to be) sin for us,” 2 Cor 5:21.
Protector.
.I think he is saying that because Christ took our sins onto Himself, He became sin for us, “For he hath made him,… who knew no sin (to be) sin for us,” 2 Cor 5:21
QUOTE=Protector, Thank you for your welcome! Thank you also for the technical advice re- the correct procedure for quoting. There’s me thinking I was doing so well. I will endeavour to correct my errors.Welcome to the forums, Protector!
Just a friendly tip: check out this thread to learn how to use the quote feature properly. It makes your posts more legible.
In response to your comment:.
Catholics give a hearty AMEN! to that. Not sure what you think Catholics disagree with in that verse?
Ellen WhiteTo defend the heretical position of Ellen White you are now claiming** if Christ couldn’t sin Christ couldn’t be a sacrifice…**
Consider for a moment the reason God came and “saved us” and think about your reasoning just a little bit…“For in that, wherein he himself hath suffered and been tempted, he is able to succour them also that are tempted.” Heb.2:18 D-R
Christ was born without “Original Sin”, but He had free will as is seen from this verse, "Saying: Father, if thou wilt, remove this chalice from me: but yet not my will, but thine be done (Luke 22:42 Douay-Rheims.) so He could have sinned. but chose not to.
i.e. He had no propensity to sin.
"For he hath made him,… who knew no sin (to be) sin for us,; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him…( 2 Cor 5:21 King James).
I don’t think anyone here is against that because what you just said above is true…Now, since, “…the wages of sin is death” Christ, (having taken on himself the sins of the whole World) had to die. Now, "…almost all things, according to the law, are cleansed with blood: and without shedding of blood there is no remission. Heb 9:22 D-R ) But because, “* it is impossible that with the blood of oxen and goats sin should be taken away.” * Heb 10:4 D-R, Christ, our Lord having become sin for us, offered himself, willingly, the perfect sacrifice for the whole world, …
Caiphas unknowingly put this selfless act,(that changed the World forever), into one simple sentence when he advised the Jews, ".that it was expedient that one man should die for the people John 18:14 D-R.
No, Richard said ( in keeping with Ellen White’s teaching ) that “Christ” COULD HAVE SINNED & could have lost His eternal existence…I don’t believe that Richard is saying that God sinned Pythons, I think he is saying that because Christ took our sins onto Himself, He became sin for us, “For he hath made him,… who knew no sin (to be) sin for us,” 2 Cor 5:21.