The argument you presented was that the Church has never asked the Orthodox Church to remove their “Catholic” title.
Yet you provided not a single piece of evidence to support your argument.
Quod gratis asseritur, gratis negatur.
This is the argument I provided (and which you chose to ignore, probably because you didn’t have any reply):
There is nothing in the word ‘catholic’ itself that says you have to be in communion with Rome. In fact, if we go back to the first instance of the word, as far as we know, in
the Epistle of St. Ignatius to the Smyrnaeans, we see that the one thing needed for catholicity is to be in communion with one’s valid bishop:
See that you all follow the bishop, even as Jesus Christ does the Father, and the presbytery as you would the apostles; and reverence the deacons, as being the institution of God. Let no man do anything connected with the Church without the bishop. Let that be deemed a proper Eucharist, which is [administered] either by the bishop, or by one to whom he has entrusted it. Wherever the bishop shall appear, there let the multitude [of the people] also be; even as, wherever Jesus Christ is, there is the Catholic Church.
He binds catholicity to being in communion with one’s valid bishop. We find this also in
Lumen gentium 21, which states that the Church is where the people gather around their bishop: “In the bishops, therefore, for whom priests are assistants, Our Lord Jesus Christ, the Supreme High Priest, is present in the midst of those who believe.”
Now, the Roman Catholic Church recognises the validity of the ordination of orthodox priests and bishops (including archbishops and patriarchs). Following that recognition, and following St. Ignatius’ definition of catholicity, the Orthodox are catholic. And if the Orthodox are catholic, your assertion is wrong.
Are you suggesting St. Ignatius was wrong?