Aquinas's First Way

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I didn’t say the “form of consecration”; I said the form of the bread. What do you think physically changes in the Eucharest Linus? Jesus is not physically inside of it like Descartes thought, so the breadness remains physically. That is, it is not an sensory illusion.
 
I didn’t say the “form of consecration”; I said the form of the bread. What do you think physically changes in the Eucharest Linus? Jesus is not physically inside of it like Descartes thought, so the breadness remains physically. That is, it is not an sensory illusion.
From the Catechism of the Council of Trent

catholicapologetics.info/thechurch/catechism/Holy7Sacraments-Eucharist.shtml

These very elements serve also somewhat to suggest to men the truth of the Real Presence of the body and blood of the Lord in the Sacrament. Observing, as we do, that bread and wine are every day changed by the power of nature into human flesh and blood, we are led the more easily by this analogy to believe that the substance of the bread and wine is changed, by the heavenly benediction, into the real flesh and real blood of Christ.

And further:
The Catholic Church firmly believes and professes that in this Sacrament the words of consecration accomplish three wondrous and admirable effects.

The first is that the true body of Christ the Lord, the same that was born of the Virgin, and is now seated at the right hand of the Father in heaven, is contained in this Sacrament.

The second, however repugnant it may appear to the senses, is that none of the substance of the elements remains in the Sacrament.

The third, which may be deduced from the two preceding. although the words of consecration themselves clearly express it, is that the accidents which present themselves to the eyes or other senses exist in a wonderful and ineffable manner without a subject. All the accidents of bread and wine we can see, but they inhere in no substance, and exist independently of any; for the substance of the bread and wine is so changed into the body and blood of our Lord that they altogether cease to be the substance of bread and wine.

Again:
This conversion, then, is so effected that the whole substance of the bread is changed by the power of God into the whole substance of the body of Christ, and the whole substance of the wine into the whole substance of His blood, and this, without any change in our Lord Himself. He is neither begotten, nor changed, not increased, but remains entire in His substance.

Again:

This admirable change, as the Council of Trent teaches, the Holy Catholic Church most appropriately expresses by the word transubstantiation. Since natural changes are rightly called transformations, because they involve a change of form; so likewise our predecessors in the faith wisely and appropriately introduced the term transubstantiation, in order to signify that in the Sacrament of the Eucharist the whole substance of one thing passes into the whole substance of another.

Here we have a specific refutation to your understanding of what " form " means.

And here is how the Council of Trent defined the Dogma:

CHAPTER IV.
On Transubstantiation.
And because that Christ, our Redeemer, declared that which He offered under the species of bread to be truly His own body, therefore has it ever been a firm belief in the Church of God, and this holy Synod doth now declare it anew, that, by the consecration of the bread and of the wine, a conversion is made of the whole substance of the bread into the substance of the body of Christ our Lord, and of the whole substance of the wine into the substance of His blood; which conversion is, by the holy Catholic Church, suitably and properly called Transubstantiation.

history.hanover.edu/texts/trent/ct13.html

So it cannot be allowed that anyone should that there is any " physicality " in the species which remain. Their substance has been changed into Christ. Therefore there is nothing remaining that can be called physical. I have explained how their matter and form ( their substance ) was changed into Christ. However, the accidents of matter remain - size, shape, weight, mass, atoms and ultimate particles. It is improper to call any of this physical just to sooth the ruffled feathers of " scientists " who object. It also puts confusion in the minds of the faithful.

Linus2nd
 
Matter is physical by definition. Nothing you quoted contradicts me. “Since natural changes are rightly called transformations, because they involve a change of form…”. A physical alteration involves a change in form. There is no physical alteration here, only a change in form. Like when you go to Church, do you get into a trance or something and can’t tell it bread instead of a illusion? There’s no middle ground here
 
See my new thread Popes in theological conflict with each other? on how Aquinas probably went too far in his speculations on what we can now about the world beyond matter
 
Do you assert that Chemist’s are wrong in saying that nascent H2 and H++ ions are both hydrogen?
To assert that you would have to demonstrate that the difference in properties constitutes
substantial change rather than accidental change. (Which has been the whole point of my observations ab initio).
Water and steam have very different properties - why is this not substantial change?
I’m still trying to get a better understanding of this myself. But I did stumble upon this article today while thinking about this issue that I thought might interest you: St. Thomas on Substantial Unity Against the Pluriformists. Particularly relevant to the question you raised in my quotation of your post is this passage:
St. Thomas Aquinas in Questions on the Soul:
Now it is the nature of a substantial form to give to matter its existence without qualification. For the form is that through which a thing is the very thing that it is; through accidental forms a thing does not possess unqualified existence, but only qualified existence, for example, to exist as large, or colored, or something of this kind. Therefore, if there is a form which does not give unqualified existence to matter but which accrues to matter that is already actually existing through another form, then such a form will not be a substantial form.
It seems to me that what he is saying is that substantial forms refer to subjects whereas accidental forms refer to qualifications on pre-existing subjects. In other words, substantial forms are nouns and accidental forms are adjectives that describe nouns. So ice, liquid water, and water vapor all have the same substantial form because they are all the same thing, namely water. The physical states are accidental because they describe the subject of water. If I said “oh, there’s a solid over there” you’d ask “a solid what” because solidity is an accidental form that qualifies something. If I said “oh, there’s water over there” it would seem to be silly to ask “a watery what.” I imagine the case would be similar for H2 vs. H+ because the difference would be the charged status, and charged modifies a subject making it an accidental rather than substantial form. I haven’t thought too much about this though to know if it holds more generally.
 
The same is true of the human substance. We can see all manner of chemical reactions and interchanges that make muscles move and burn oxygen and sugar. Its all controlled/unified by the soul but the lower level substances act just as they would in the test tube.

Looks like plurality of forms to me.
This is something that was covered in the article I linked to in the previous post as well. I would be interested in your thoughts on the matter.

What you are saying about there being multiple forms in something like a human for instance seems to me to be correct. But I think that if what the author in the article says is true, then it is not something with which Aquinas disagrees. It seems to be a misunderstanding of what a substantial form is. The substantial form seems to be the most specific form you get to before the accidents, which in the case of a human is human nature.

The thing that’s tricky is the fact that, for instance, water molecules seem to be present in the human body, so don’t they still have the substantial form of water? He considers this objection and offers a rebuttal to it, though I kind of wish he had dedicated some paragraphs to refuting the last objection before his conclusion. Anyway, I think the key to understanding this is that water and related things are present in the human body virtually which is a midway position between not being present at all and being present fully and actually as water. I guess this means that water still has the properties of water but these properties are fully harnessed towards the end of sustaining the life of a human person. It’s not that free water cannot behave the way it does in a human being, but there is no reason for it to behave that way as free water. When it is incorporated into a human being it does naturally behave in a way conducive to sustaining human life. It’s not doing anything against its nature as water when it is in a human being, but it’s nature is being specifically directed towards the human end. Hence it is appropriately said to have the substantial form of human nature and not water, although this virtually includes the more general nature of water (since nothing it is doing in the human person contradicts its nature as water). That was my understanding of the matter, for whatever it is worth.
 
I don’t think I can be more clear than I have been. I think your demands are unreasonable. I think you are so invested in modern philosophy of science, which rejects A/T out of hand, that you have closed your mind.

Linus2nd
Linus you predictably leave the kitchen when it gets too hot and it comes to demonstrating armchair concepts by real world examples.

There is nothing clearer than application of theory.
If you cannot do that your views will never be credible.

I am not invested in anything.
I simply observe trees that don’t seem to fit in the forests of Philosophers, religious or secular, who hold to grand-unifying systems… that do not seem to be as unified or grand as they purport.

I call that seeking truth wherever it may lead… even if its just denial of some past “truths”.
 
Actually, he provides many examples of how applying the ideas of objective “accident” and “substance” to the physical world leads to logical absurdities. Accident and substance is too simplified an explanation of the physical world to be coherent with modern scientific discoveries.
Agreed.
The problem is that Linus seems to think this will lead to wholesale rejection of Aristotle :eek:.

I don’t think so at all.
More like what Einstein did to Newton.
Newton wasn’t wrong…he simply wasn’t comprehensive enough. In his own sphere his predictions and formulae and understanding are an extremely good approximation.

Aristotle got off on the wrong foot re substantial/accidental change because he was mistaken in affirming that pure substances are infinitely divisable without change.
This is not compatible with the atomic model.

Therefore, as Aristotle’s hylomorphic system is allegedly fairly tightly integrated, if he was wrong on one thing it will have some knock on effects for other things.

Plurality of forms therefore does not appear to be, by definition, an inconsistant view of substance and change. Sure the definition of other terms may need to be tweaked.
 
I didn’t say the “form of consecration”; I said the form of the bread. What do you think physically changes in the Eucharest Linus? Jesus is not physically inside of it like Descartes thought, so the breadness remains physically. That is, it is not an sensory illusion.
Its a linguistic problem too TAM.
“Breadness” to a modern Englishman is not the same as “breadness” to a Latin (possibly Scholastic) type person.

I know exactly what you mean by breadness - that nature which appears undeniable to the senses.

But scholastics of course disagree. They do not define a nature by its sensible function or appearances (which are regarded as accidents)…but only by its inferred “substance”.

In the Eucharist, for men of faith, we must deny what our senses tell us because in this singular unusual example, outward “breadness” lies. The inferred (by faith and reason) substance is actually the same as that of the body of Jesus (though we do not see his bodily accidents either).

So its a sort of two-way “lie” whereby our reason and senses are perplexed.

Personally I have no problem refering to the consecrated host as bread because, like most ordinary people, I name things according to their sensible appearance and characteristics.

But if such people think this must deny the Real Presence, then I would refrain from speakinmg so.
 
This is something that was covered in the article I linked to in the previous post as well. I would be interested in your thoughts on the matter.

What you are saying about there being multiple forms in something like a human for instance seems to me to be correct. But I think that if what the author in the article says is true, then it is not something with which Aquinas disagrees. It seems to be a misunderstanding of what a substantial form is. The substantial form seems to be the most specific form you get to before the accidents, which in the case of a human is human nature.

The thing that’s tricky is the fact that, for instance, water molecules seem to be present in the human body, so don’t they still have the substantial form of water? He considers this objection and offers a rebuttal to it, though I kind of wish he had dedicated some paragraphs to refuting the last objection before his conclusion. Anyway, I think the key to understanding this is that water and related things are present in the human body virtually which is a midway position between not being present at all and being present fully and actually as water. I guess this means that water still has the properties of water but these properties are fully harnessed towards the end of sustaining the life of a human person. It’s not that free water cannot behave the way it does in a human being, but there is no reason for it to behave that way as free water. When it is incorporated into a human being it does naturally behave in a way conducive to sustaining human life. It’s not doing anything against its nature as water when it is in a human being, but it’s nature is being specifically directed towards the human end. Hence it is appropriately said to have the substantial form of human nature and not water, although this virtually includes the more general nature of water (since nothing it is doing in the human person contradicts its nature as water). That was my understanding of the matter, for whatever it is worth.
Well said and that is orthodox A/T teaching.

Linus2nd
 
Matter is physical by definition. Nothing you quoted contradicts me. “Since natural changes are rightly called transformations, because they involve a change of form…”. A physical alteration involves a change in form. There is no physical alteration here, only a change in form. Like when you go to Church, do you get into a trance or something and can’t tell it bread instead of a illusion? There’s no middle ground here
That is heretical. This is not a normal substantial changte where an old form disappears and a new form appears. That is why it is not called a substantial change but a Transubstantiation. It is the whole substance of the bread and wine, their matter and their form which has been changed. And this does not happen in a substantial change.

From the Cannons of the Council of Trent, Session 13

onetruecatholicfaith.com/Roman-Catholic-Dogma.php?id=24&title=Denzinger+801±+901&page=1

884 Can. 2. If anyone says that in the sacred and holy sacrament of the Eucharist there remains the substance of bread and wine together with the body and blood of our Lord Jesus Christ, and denies that wonderful and singular conversion of the whole substance of the bread into the body, and of the entire substance of the wine into the blood, the species of the bread and wine only remaining, a change which the Catholic Church most fittingly calls transubstantiation: let him be anathema [cf. n. 887 ]

Notice that the conversion of the whole substance of the bread and wine into the Body and Blood is called singular denotes this conversion as something entirely different from normal substantial changes and that is why the Church defines this change not as a substantial change but as a transubstantiation, that is a total change where the matter and the form of both the bread and wine and not just the form.

So since matter is physical, the physical aspects of the matter of the species has been changed. What is left are accidents of that matter, size, weight, mass, shape, color, etc.

Linus2nd .
 
I’m still trying to get a better understanding of this myself. But I did stumble upon this article today while thinking about this issue that I thought might interest you: St. Thomas on Substantial Unity Against the Pluriformists. Particularly relevant to the question you raised in my quotation of your post is this passage:

It seems to me that what he is saying is that substantial forms refer to subjects whereas accidental forms refer to qualifications on pre-existing subjects. In other words, substantial forms are nouns and accidental forms are adjectives that describe nouns. So ice, liquid water, and water vapor all have the same substantial form because they are all the same thing, namely water. The physical states are accidental because they describe the subject of water. If I said “oh, there’s a solid over there” you’d ask “a solid what” because solidity is an accidental form that qualifies something. If I said “oh, there’s water over there” it would seem to be silly to ask “a watery what.” I imagine the case would be similar for H2 vs. H+ because the difference would be the charged status, and charged modifies a subject making it an accidental rather than substantial form. I haven’t thought too much about this though to know if it holds more generally.
Great stuff Balto - this is just the direction Linus needs to go if he wants to engage and influence people!

I’ll check that link out. Here’s one for you:
aquinasonline.com/Topics/chemical.html
I don’t find the reasoning particularly strong but at least its a start.

There’s not much out there on applying hylomorphic principles to the Philosophy of Chemistry.

Re your insights into water and that quote from Aquinas I need to reflect more.
I tend to agree that Aristotle probably sees water/vapour/ice as but accidental changes of the same pure substance. But is it merely because one can identify most things as having 3 states? How does that reconcile with the vastly different sets of characteristics besides that of state? What about allotropes (soot and charcoal) where its the same thing but no change of state (eg charcoal and diamond). Something else is going on in his analysis. I bet Aristotle considered them different substances.

Regardless, if we can say water and steam are the same substance despite very different charcteristics how can an Aristotelian disagree with Chemists who rightly say that nascent hydrogen (H), natural hydrogen (H2), hydrogen ions (H+) and hydrogen Isotopes (D,D2,D+) with an extra neutron in the nucleus are all the same substance?

An Aristotelian surely has no problem with a Chemist who defines the formal cause of Hydrogen as: an atom having exactly 1 proton in its nucleus. It doesn’t matter how many neutrons it may have, it doesn’t matter how many electrons it might lose or share because these are only accidental changes to the hydrogen atom.

To say that billions of such defined structures do not exist individually that glass of clear liquid on my kitchen bench is untenable.

Do these hydrogen atoms get their existence in any way by being bonded to oxygen as a tight water molecule? I do not see how. Rather its the other way around - water gets its existence by two atoms of hydrogen being bonded to one of oxygen.

(This description does not seem to fit with how we are to separate accidental forms from substantial forms above. I do not deny water is also a substance.)

Sure the hydrogen undergoes an accidental change in sharing its electron with the oxygen atom (as does by mutuakl definition the oxygen atom) and these two substances interpenetrate.

Aristotle of course was convinced that two different substances cannot interpenetrate which means he prob never exactly conceived of such a “mixture” as we see in compounds.

Indeed two substances cannot share the same space at the same time if they are “solid contiguous matter”. But we now know that what Aristotle in many cases referred to as “matter” is not solid in this way. So separate pure substances can inter-penetrate each other’s electron clouds … a form of substantial “mixing” I do not believe Aristotle ever thought would be possible.
 
This is something that was covered in the article I linked to in the previous post as well. I would be interested in your thoughts on the matter.

What you are saying about there being multiple forms in something like a human for instance seems to me to be correct. But I think that if what the author in the article says is true, then it is not something with which Aquinas disagrees. It seems to be a misunderstanding of what a substantial form is. The substantial form seems to be the most specific form you get to before the accidents, which in the case of a human is human nature.

The thing that’s tricky is the fact that, for instance, water molecules seem to be present in the human body, so don’t they still have the substantial form of water? He considers this objection and offers a rebuttal to it, though I kind of wish he had dedicated some paragraphs to refuting the last objection before his conclusion. Anyway, I think the key to understanding this is that water and related things are present in the human body virtually which is a midway position between not being present at all and being present fully and actually as water. I guess this means that water still has the properties of water but these properties are fully harnessed towards the end of sustaining the life of a human person. It’s not that free water cannot behave the way it does in a human being, but there is no reason for it to behave that way as free water. When it is incorporated into a human being it does naturally behave in a way conducive to sustaining human life. It’s not doing anything against its nature as water when it is in a human being, but it’s nature is being specifically directed towards the human end. Hence it is appropriately said to have the substantial form of human nature and not water, although this virtually includes the more general nature of water (since nothing it is doing in the human person contradicts its nature as water). That was my understanding of the matter, for whatever it is worth.
Yes I think this existing “virtually” business is as close as Aquinas or Aristotle ever gets to an ancient parallel to the problem facing Catholic Chemists.

Aristotle talks this “virtual” stuff when he observes that the “Elements” (earth, air,fire water) seem to compose all things in varying mixtures and easily revert when an animal dies or something changes substantially.

Yet I cannot see what the difference is between existing virtually and potentially. Everybody knows that matter is potentially just about anything if you substantially change it in the right way.

What this virtually stuff doesn’t really tackle is how the lesser substantial forms seem to be somewhat actual already in the higher organisms - though obviously constrained …the higher form controls them and does not allow these lesser forms to actuate all their formal potentialities they would possess outside of the control of the higher form.

I see no logical contradiction in positing concurrrent operation and integration of multiple hierachical forms in nature whether organic or inorganic. Sure Scotus might have had his definition of those lesser forms a bit wrong (he said it was the bodily organs).

However where is the logical contgradiction in hypothesising plurality of forms given that Aristotle appears mistaken wrt infinite divisability of pure substances and interpenetration of pure substances.
 
Blue
I have a great deal of difficulty giving virtual substances any credence as well. I think we have two problems. One is that Aristotelian/Thomistic philosophers and scientists have two different understandings of substance. I think the philosopher is quite willing to accept the scientific idea of a substance when they are doing science. After all, when they are teaching, learning, or working in the lab they are dealing with substances. But the scientist is, or appears to be, quite possive about the term ’ substance, ’ and thinks the philosopher is a fool. Yet when we get smaller than the atom ( assuming there really is such a thing ) even scientists are confused about just what is a substance.

Let’s say we were able to isolate an atom so that it would have a life span of at least a few minutes before it started resolving itself into its constituent parts. would you call it a substance? But if not, why insist on calling it a substance in its own right when it is part of a man?

Besides, what is an atom anyway? Just a more or less stable ( at one end of the peridic table at least ) bundle of energy. And what is energy really? Didn’t God have to make matter out of something? So he made it out of bundles of energy called atoms. And most of man is made out of hydrogen and oxygen in the form of water. And much of this is turned into oxygen and transferred to the blood stream. What happens to the hydrogen? And when water gets outside of the body just how stable is it, as a loose atom or molecule? How long before it breaks down into H2 and O? And how stable are H2 and O, how long before they break down, what is their life span?

Linus2nd
 
Let’s say we were able to isolate an atom so that it would have a life span of at least a few minutes before it started resolving itself into its constituent parts. would you call it a substance? But if not, why insist on calling it a substance in its own right when it is part of a man?
Because the word “substance” implies something which cannot be broken down into parts. For example, you think a rock is an objectively real object, but if you look closer it is just a combination of atoms, which are combinations of smaller parts, etc. This shows that the rock does not objectively exist, because that would imply that there was some pseudo-spiritual identity of the rock of which the atoms were parts. But as crazy as the previous idea sounds, you still believe in it.
 
Because the word “substance” implies something which cannot be broken down into parts. For example, you think a rock is an objectively real object, but if you look closer it is just a combination of atoms, which are combinations of smaller parts, etc. This shows that the rock does not objectively exist, because that would imply that there was some pseudo-spiritual identity of the rock of which the atoms were parts. But as crazy as the previous idea sounds, you still believe in it.
No, the problem is that the the philosophers of science of today have succumbed to scientism. They are telling Aristotelian/Thomistic philosophers " there is no room at the table. " It began with Hume and Descartes and Bishop Berkley and now philosophy has become the forgotten science for the most part, though it is making a slow come back. There is much more interest in both philosophers than there was in the latter part of the 20th century. In other words, if a branch of knowledge doesn’t make something useful, if it doesn’t lead to something that produces a predictive theory then it is useless, and being useless in the productive or predictive sense then it isn’t true 🤷.

Linus2nd

Linus2nd
 
Great stuff Balto - this is just the direction Linus needs to go if he wants to engage and influence people!

I’ll check that link out. Here’s one for you:
aquinasonline.com/Topics/chemical.html
I don’t find the reasoning particularly strong but at least its a start.
Thanks! I gave it a read so now I think I understand what your concerns are a little better.
There’s not much out there on applying hylomorphic principles to the Philosophy of Chemistry.
It’s weird because I always thought that the chemical considerations were the easiest to try to fit into a hylemorphic framework. I have more difficulty trying to discern the substantial difference between say, a dog and a cat, since they are both sentient animals. I was reading a book that attempts to fit modern scientific knowledge into an Aristotelian metaphysical framework: The Modeling of Nature: The Philosophy of Science and the Philosophy of Nature in Synthesis. The author discusses chemical considerations in some detail. Here’s another one that I want to get that may answer some of these questions, if you are interested: The Way Toward Wisdom: An Interdisciplinary and Intercultural Introduction to Metaphysics
Re your insights into water and that quote from Aquinas I need to reflect more.
I tend to agree that Aristotle probably sees water/vapour/ice as but accidental changes of the same pure substance. But is it merely because one can identify most things as having 3 states? How does that reconcile with the vastly different sets of characteristics besides that of state? What about allotropes (soot and charcoal) where its the same thing but no change of state (eg charcoal and diamond). Something else is going on in his analysis. I bet Aristotle considered them different substances.

Regardless, if we can say water and steam are the same substance despite very different charcteristics how can an Aristotelian disagree with Chemists who rightly say that nascent hydrogen (H), natural hydrogen (H2), hydrogen ions (H+) and hydrogen Isotopes (D,D2,D+) with an extra neutron in the nucleus are all the same substance?

An Aristotelian surely has no problem with a Chemist who defines the formal cause of Hydrogen as: an atom having exactly 1 proton in its nucleus. It doesn’t matter how many neutrons it may have, it doesn’t matter how many electrons it might lose or share because these are only accidental changes to the hydrogen atom.
I’m not sure why the Aristotelian would disagree with the modern chemist about the nature of hydrogen being an atom with a single proton. They would probably agree with it. I know David Oderberg frequently likes to use the example of gold as being a substance with atomic number 79. Your example of soot vs. charcoal vs. diamond is more interesting, and I think it would be up to the chemist to determine whether those are really distinct substances. At first I was going to say that diamond and charcoal have different properties, such as brittleness, but that may count as an accidental form according to my previous definition. What the modern chemist cannot do is call the idea of hylemorphism itself into question. Well I suppose they can and many do, but they seem to not be able to act as though it is false. We seem to know that certain things like the elements are distinct things even if we have difficulty discerning the differences between certain combinations of things.
To say that billions of such defined structures do not exist individually that glass of clear liquid on my kitchen bench is untenable.
I don’t think they’d deny that water is composed of individual particles. The quantity and shape of water would be regarded as an accidental form.
Do these hydrogen atoms get their existence in any way by being bonded to oxygen as a tight water molecule? I do not see how. Rather its the other way around - water gets its existence by two atoms of hydrogen being bonded to one of oxygen.
Yes, but I think this is a crucial point that needs to be made. You are talking about the efficient cause of water, which is two hydrogen atoms and an oxygen atom reacting and forming covalent bonds with one another. But substantial form refers to the formal cause, which is to say why is water, water? One might say, “oh water is just what happens when hydrogen and oxygen behave in such and such a way…” whatever the rest of the explanation is. But it is hard to see how one has reduced water to simply oxygen and hydrogen if you always have to keep the notion of water in mind to explain the behavior of oxygen and hydrogen. The article I linked to yesterday seems to make this point when Aquinas argues that we have this tendency to think of a form as a type of thing since we form a mental concept of it, but in reality it is not a thing but a principle by which things are certain types of things. So it is not that the form is a thing that gets into contact with matter but the principle in virtue of which the matter becomes a certain type of thing rather than another. That’s the point I was trying to make.
 
What this virtually stuff doesn’t really tackle is how the lesser substantial forms seem to be somewhat actual already in the higher organisms - though obviously constrained …the higher form controls them and does not allow these lesser forms to actuate all their formal potentialities they would possess outside of the control of the higher form.
I think that is exactly what it means for something to be possessed virtually. The difficulty lies in the fact that people tend to associate the word “virtual” with computers and “virtual reality” which makes it seem like to say that something is virtually possessed is to say that it is not really there but only appears to be there. But as the article you linked to pointed out “virtual” comes from the Latin world “virtus” which is the word for power, so the powers of hydrogen and oxygen are present in water but harnessed to a particular end. Potentiality means that the power is not there now but could be there. So hydrogen and oxygen have waterness potentially when they are simply hydrogen and oxygen, since they don’t have the powers of water until they chemically react with one another.

Yes, it’s true that any matter is potentially any other type of thing, but you are referring to protomatter, pure potentiality, which could be anything else since it could adopt any form. If protomatter already has a form, say water, then it already has certain forms that are potentially available to it naturally, but not others. If water transformed into a form that is not available to it as water then that would probably be rightly considered a miracle since it would require a direct conjoining of a form to protomatter directly rather than attaching a new form to proximate matter (i.e. lower forms of matter that already have a basic form).
However where is the logical contgradiction in hypothesising plurality of forms given that Aristotle appears mistaken wrt infinite divisability of pure substances and interpenetration of pure substances.
Well I don’t know why you think that Aristotle’s metaphysics depends on infinite divisibility. It is true that Aristotle and Aquinas erroneously thought that inorganic matter was one type of thing that is irreducible. Now we know that inorganic substances are composed of various elements that are composed of protons, neutrons, and electrons, etc. But I don’t think they would have thrown out their metaphysics if they had known this fact. After all, they made provisions for organic substances, which they knew were composed of heterogeneous parts. If I am remembering correctly, I think the word “organic” is etymologically derived from the Greek word “organon” which means “instrument”, since organic things have different parts that serve different functions rather than being a homogeneous whole like they assumed inorganic matter was. So it seems that the atomic description of inorganic matter could be fit seamlessly into an Aristotelian metaphysical framework.

I get what you are saying with there being a hierarchy of forms, but I think that the confusion is over a subtle metaphysical point about what counts as a “substantial form.” If a proton is in a water molecule, it still has proton behavior but this behavior is oriented towards sustaining the water molecule. It doesn’t behave in a way contrary to the nature of a proton, but the way it behaves in water is different than the way it behaves as a free proton. So there’s only one substantial form there, the water form, even though the proton form is present virtually, i.e. proton-power is still in water, though harnessed towards waterness.
 
Because the word “substance” implies something which cannot be broken down into parts. For example, you think a rock is an objectively real object, but if you look closer it is just a combination of atoms, which are combinations of smaller parts, etc. This shows that the rock does not objectively exist, because that would imply that there was some pseudo-spiritual identity of the rock of which the atoms were parts. But as crazy as the previous idea sounds, you still believe in it.
No, you’re not understanding what they are saying. If you break water down into its parts, you no longer have water anymore, but hydrogen and oxygen. So a substance really is something that cannot be broken down and modern science seems to support this since you cannot explain the behavior of oxygen and hydrogen in water without reference to the structure and properties of water as a whole. You are assuming that the hylemorphist is committed to the absurd view that a substance is absolutely not divisible into any other thing at all. No hylemorphist, ancient, medieval, or modern, has ever asserted such a thing. They were aware that substances are composed of parts since they considered organic things to be substances and organic things quite obviously have disparate parts.

Since you are committed to the view that “rocks don’t exist” because they are really “nothing but” a bunch of atoms, how do you recognize that the objects outside your house are rocks? Because those atoms are arranged “rock-wise”? Can’t say that because then you’ve just made reference to the whole and applied a form to it which you argued is “crazy”. Because those atoms and no others are casually involved in your experience of the rock? Well that doesn’t work either since the atoms in your eyes and brain are part of this casual process yet you would not consider them part of the rock, and the atoms on the interior of the rock are not involved in this process yet are generally considered part of the rock. So why do you recognize those objects as rocks?
 
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