IB, in what parallel universe did you think I was going to pretend that the English was exactly the same as the Latin? Of course it isn’t.
Was that Latin the same as the Greek that preceded it as the language of liturgy and scripture? No. Were things lost and changed in THAT translation (from Greek to Latin)? Certainly.
Was the Greek the same as the Aramaic in which Our Blessed Lord ACTUALLY spoke those words at the Last Supper? No. Were things lost in THAT translation (from Aramaic to Greek)? Absolutely.
Just look at the ‘petra/petros’ (rock/pebble) debate so popular among our non-Catholic brothers. Fact is Our Lord would actually have used the word ‘kepha’ which had no gender - the same word with the same meaning for Peter and ‘the Rock’.
And yet the non-Catholics have made a mountain of a molehill of the fact that the Greek words have genders, and also that petra has a slightly different meaning from petros. That’s certainly something that wasn’t present in the original Aramaic - a sideffect of the most imperfect art of translation
Your problem is that you think Latin is the be-all and end-all. It’s actually only one or two steps up the ladder in a chain of translations from the English, that stretches back to the Greek or Aramaic. At each stage things have been lost and changed - no language is really frozen in stone.